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Kerala PSC Jr. Public Health Nurse GR.II – Health / Muni. Comn. Service Previous Question Paper – 047/2020

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Post NameJR. PUBLIC HEALTH NURSE GR.II - HEALTH / MUNI. COMN. SERVICE
Question Paper Code047/2020
Category Code527/2019
Date of Test10 November 2020
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOMR Examination
Total Questions100
1
Drug-kit B is given at
Answer
B. Sub center
2
International AIDS day is celebrated on ____________ every year.
Answer
D. 1 December
3
Who is the Chairman of Health Survey and Planning Committee ?
Answer
A. A. L. Mudaliar
4
Principles of health education include all Except
Answer
C. Punishment
5
Census is conducted in every ____________ years in India.
Answer
C. 10
6
ASHA is recruited under
Answer
A. NRHM
7
The most common side effect of IUD insertion is
Answer
B. Bleeding
8
MMR vaccine is given at
Answer
D. 18 months
9
Diagnosis of TB according to DOTS is
Answer
C. 1 out of 2 samples positive
10
According to Maternal Health Programme, the daily dose of folic acid for pregnant woman should be
Answer
D. 400 mcg
11
Which of the following vaccine is not administered at birth ?
Answer
A. Hib
12
DMPA is an injectable contraceptive given every
Answer
B. 3 months
13
Toxic shock syndrome is due to which vaccine ?
Answer
D. Measles
14
Minimum gap that should be allowed in between to administer two live vaccines is
Answer
C. 4 weeks
15
GOBI Campaign of the UNICEF includes all Except
Answer
A. Observation
16
Which is the best determinant of the health status of a community ?
Answer
B. Infant mortality rate
17
Zero incidence is
Answer
A. Elimination of disease
18
Micro nutrients includes
Answer
B. Minerals
19
Pellagra is due to the deficiency of
Answer
A. Niacin
20
A person with Body Mass Index of 18.5 – 25 belongs to the category of
Answer
A. Normal weight
21
Which of the following is an example for food adulteration ?
Answer
C. Mixing of papaya seeds with pepper
22
Smallest bone situated in the middle ear is
Answer
A. Stapes
23
Inflammation of gum is called
Answer
B. Gingivitis
24
Total number of canines in human oral cavity
Answer
D. Four
25
Outer layer of the heart wall is
Answer
C. Pericardium
26
Type of mosquito transmitting malaria
Answer
A. Anopheles
27
Instrument used to calculate the amount of bleaching powder for disinfection of well
Answer
D. Horrock’s apparatus
28
Hormone secreted by posterior pituitary gland
Answer
B. Oxytocin
29
Minimum distance between septic tank and source of water
Answer
C. 15 meters
30
The ability to understand self is termed as
Answer
D. Insight
31
Defence mechanism in which unacceptable desires are redirected into socially desirable channels
Answer
B. Sublimation
32
False fixed belief that cannot be corrected by reasoning is called
Answer
A. Delusion
33
Science dealing with ageing process
Answer
C. Gerontology
34
The term for fear of height
Answer
D. Acrophobia
35
Rabies is caused by
Answer
C. Lyssavirus
36
Population covered by an Anganwadi worker is
Answer
D. 1000
37
“Flag sign” is a characteristic feature of which disease ?
Answer
A. Kwashiorkor
38
Universal Immunisation Programme was launched in India in
Answer
C. 1985
39
Under Vitamin A prophylaxis programme, children between 1 to 6 years are given
Answer
B. 2 lakhs IU of Vit. A
40
Sabin vaccine is given for the prevention of
Answer
C. Poliomyelitis
41
One subcentre is for a population of
Answer
B. 5,000
42
The most appropriate time to collect sputum specimen from a patient is
Answer
C. Early morning
43
Immunity transferred to fetus from the mother through placenta is
Answer
C. Passive natural immunity
44
The simplest method of prevent cross infection is
Answer
C. Handwashing
45
Immunization is a method of
Answer
A. Primary prevention
46
Pap Smear Examination is done to diagnose
Answer
B. Ca cervix
47
Root of administration of measles vaccine is
Answer
B. Subcutaneous
48
Which of the following is a live vaccine ?
Answer
C. BCG
49
Constant presence of a disease within a geographic area
Answer
A. Endemic
50
A person who harbours pathogenic organisms without showing the manifestations of the disease
Answer
C. Carrier
51
Five teaspoon is equivalent to how many milliliters ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
52
Which pulse should the nurse palpate during rapid assessment of an adult unconscious patient ?
Answer
D. Carotid
53
The following are the standard tuberculosis drug Except
Answer
B. Chloromycin
54
___________ is a water soluble Vitamin.
Answer
C. Vitamin B
55
The infant sit alone at the age of
Answer
Question Cancelled
56
The Child Labour Protection and Regulation Act prohibit employment of children in factories below the age of
Answer
B. 14 years
57
Psychosocial development of adolescence is
Answer
C. Identity Vs role confusion
58
A protein deficiency syndrome in which weight below 60%, growth retardation and generalised oedema
Answer
B. Kwashiorkor
59
Damage to the upper brachial plexus involving the 5th and 6th cervical nerve roots result in
Answer
A. ERB’s palsy
60
Which vaccine prevent both Measles and Rubella ?
Answer
D. MR
61
Surgical management of undescended testis
Answer
A. Orchiopexy
62
Congenital X linked recessive bleeding disorder caused by deficiency of coagulation factor VIII or IX
Answer
B. Hemophilia
63
Which of the following worm larvae is transmitted by penetrating skin on barefooted individual ?
Answer
C. Hook worm
64
A commonly found eating disorder in adolescent girl by reducing food intake mostly carbohydrate and fat or by refusing food or by inducing vomiting
Answer
A. Anorexia nervosa
65
The dose of PPD used in Mantoux test is
Answer
D. 0.1 ml
66
Projectile non bilious vomiting visible peristalsis in the upper abdomen, palpable olive shaped mass, weight loss are clinical manifestation of
Answer
D. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
67
The exclusive breast feeding recommended up to the age of
Answer
B. 6 months
68
The type of pelvis commonly known as male pelvis is
Answer
C. Android pelvis
69
Anterior fontanelle normally closes by the age of
Answer
D. 18 months
70
Normal fetal heart rate
Answer
B. 120 – 160 beats/minute
71
Name given to the endometrium during pregnancy
Answer
B. Decidua
72
A woman who has not carried a pregnancy to the point of viability
Answer
B. Nullipara
73
Partograph is a tool for
Answer
B. Observing the progress of labour
74
A complete or full dilated cervix measures
Answer
C. 10 cm
75
Normal blood glucose level of new born
Answer
B. 50 – 60 mg/100 ml
76
The liberal administration of high concentration of oxygen to preterm babies for a prolonged period of period may lead to
Answer
B. Retrolental fibroplasia
77
An abortion in which the conceptus, placenta and membranes are expelled completely from the uterus
Answer
D. Complete abortion
78
A mild, benign and transient mood change during puerperal period is termed as
Answer
C. Postpartum blues
79
Indications of emergency cesarean section not include
Answer
C. Preterm baby
80
An average life of the human being which is coming in the next years is
Answer
B. Life expectancy
81
A woman whose husband does not want to continue as a life partner with her is
Answer
D. Deserted woman
82
Causative organism of syphilis is
Answer
B. Treponema pallidum
83
A test to assess the patency of fallopian tube
Answer
A. Rubin’s test
84
VCTC stands for
Answer
A. Voluntary Counselling and Testing Centre
85
Following are 3 P’s of normal labour Except
Answer
D. Parity
86
Janani Suraksha Yojana was launched on
Answer
B. 12th April 2005
87
An investigation to identify women at the risk of having a baby with neural tube defect
Answer
B. Alpha – Fetoprotein test
88
The term given to reduction in fundal height after 38th weeks of gestation is
Answer
C. Lightening
89
An abnormality of the placenta in which the umbilical cord is inserted at the edge or margin of the placenta ?
Answer
C. Battledore placenta
90
During post partum period, deep vein thrombosis can be assessed by
Answer
D. Homan’s sign
91
Which hormone is responsible for stimulating milk production ?
Answer
C. Prolactin
92
According to MTP Act, medical termination of pregnancy is to deliberate induction of abortion prior to
Answer
D. 20 weeks
93
The ratio of infant deaths registered in a given year to the number of live births per 1000 live births is
Answer
A. Infant mortality rate
94
The name given to the lochia which occurs 4 – 10 days after delivery
Answer
A. Lochia serosa
95
Population covered by one sub centre in hilly, tribal and backward areas
Answer
B. 3000
96
A health worker should have better co-ordination with which of the following sectors ?
Answer
D. All of the above
97
National programme for control of blindness was launched in the year
Answer
A. 1976
98
National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme is implemented for the prevention and control of the following diseases Except
Answer
C. Leptospirosis
99
The approaches that can be used for providing Information Education and Communication are
Answer
D. All of the above
100
Registers maintained in a sub centre includes all of the below Except
Answer
B. In patient register

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