| Post Name | JUNIOR ANALYST - KERALA MINERALS AND METALS LIMITED |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 028/2025 |
| Category Code | 131/2024 |
| Date of Test | 21 April 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which set of quantum numbers is not permitted?
Answer
D. n = 5, l = 4, m = 5, s = +½
2
Born-Haber cycle is used to determine
Answer
A. Lattice energy
3
Which of the following statements is/are correct? i. 2S orbital has no spherical node. ii. Lyman series of Hydrogen spectrum appear in the visible region. iii. 6S orbital has lower energy than 4f orbital.
Answer
C. Only iii
4
Which compound is known as 'Inorganic benzene'?
Answer
B. Borazine
5
If the limiting radius ratio is between 0.414 to 0.732, the possible coordination number is
Answer
C. 6
6
Which of the following statements is/are correct? i. N2O is a neutral oxide. ii. \([Fe(H_2O)_5NO]^{2+}\) is responsible for the colour in the 'brown-ring' test for nitrates. iii. NO is an acidic oxide. iv. [Fe(H2O)5NO]3+ is responsible for the colour in the 'brown-ring' test for nitrates.
Answer
A. Both i and ii
7
The colour of KCI crystals when heated in the presence of potassium vapour is
Answer
C. Violet
8
The correct order of increase in bond dissociation energy is
Answer
A. O_2^- < O_2 < NO < CO
9
The strongest acid among the following is
Answer
D. HClO4
10
Which of the following statements is/are correct? i. F2O has higher bond angle than Cl2O. ii. XeF4 has tetrahedral geometry. iii. CN- is a pseudo halogen. iv. Cl2O has higher bond angle than F2O.
Answer
D. Both iii and iv
11
The geometrical shape of tetracyanonickelate (II) ion is
Answer
C. Square planar
12
The electrogenic activity of Na+/K+ pump is due to
Answer
A. The development of negative potential inside the cell
13
The metal present in carboxy peptidase A is
Answer
A. Zinc
14
What is the oxidation state of iron in Haemoglobin when oxygen is not bound?
Answer
B. + 2
15
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Kroll process? i. It is a pyro metallurgical process used to produce metallic titanium from titanium tetrachloride. ii. The process is invented by William J. Kroll. iii. In Kroll process, liquid magnesium is employed.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
16
Which process is used for the purification of Nickel?
Answer
C. Mond's process
17
The chelating agent used for iron toxicity is
Answer
D. Deferoxamine
18
What is the CFSE of [Fe(H2O)6]3+ octahedral complex?
Answer
B. Zero
19
Which of the following complexes is significantly showing Jahn-Teller distortion?
Answer
A. [Cu(H_2O)_6]^{2+}
20
What is the correct order of ligands in terms of their trans effect?
Answer
C. CO, CN- > NO2- > CI- > OH- > H2O
21
An organometallic compound having bridging structure and multi-center bonding is
Answer
C. AI_2(CH_3)_6
22
The term hapticity in an organometallic compound refers to the
Answer
B. Number of carbon atoms of a ligand that are attached to the metal
23
Select reductive carbonylation method of preparation of organo carbonyls
Answer
C. CrCl_3 + Al + 6CO \rightarrow Cr(CO)_6 + AlCl_3
24
Which of the following statements related to Zeise's salt are correct? i. It is an olefin organometallic compound ii. It involves meal-ligand back bonding iii. It involves σ-type and \(\pi\)-type bonds
Answer
D. All are correct
25
Ethylene in presence of a mixture of TiCl4 and Al2(C2H5)6 in heptane forms
Answer
A. Isotactic polythene
26
Pick up correct statements related to ferrocene. i. It follows 18 electron rule ii. Ferrocene undergoes Mannich condensation reaction iii. It gives Friedel-Crafts acylation reaction
Answer
A. All are correct
27
Gases used in the Fischer-Tropsch reaction for the production of hydrocarbons with the help of heterogeneous catalyst
Answer
B. CO and H2
28
Which of the following not belonging to the category of determinate errors?
Answer
B. Uncertainties associated with chemical measurements
29
Which of the following is used to express the closeness of a measurement or set of measurements to the true or accepted value?
Answer
C. Relative error
30
When perform large number of replicate analyses, one of the result may differ excessively from the average value, we have to take a decision whether we should retain or reject that suspect result. Which of the following test have to propose for this purpose?
Answer
A. Q test
31
For the analysis of group II cations, H2S gas is passed through their solution in presence of HCI. Here the role of HCI is Which of the following is not a method for removing chemical interference in flame emission spectrometry?
Answer
B. Using graphical-standard addition technique
32
Which of the following is not a method for removing chemical interference in flame emission spectrometry ?
Answer
D. Selective spectral line modulation
33
Which of the following is a wrong statement related to conductometric titration?
Answer
C. Mixture of strong and weak acids cannot be titrated
34
Which of the following is true for complexometric titration?
Answer
C. Organic dyes have been used as indicators
35
Homolytic fission of hydro-carbon result in the formation of
Answer
B. Free radical
36
Which of the following statement is true about diastereomers? i. Stereoisomers that are mirror image of each others are called diastereomers. ii. Diastereomers have different physical properties. iii. Diastereomers can be separated by fractional distillation or fractional crystallisation.
Answer
D. All of the above statements (i, ii and iii)
37
Which of the following is correct about stability of carbocation?
Answer
A. Tropylium cation > (C6H5)3 C > CH2 = CH - CH2 > (CH3)2CH
38
Which of the following is capable of showing optical isomerism?
Answer
A. CH3CH(OH)COOH
39
Which of the following statement is true about carbanion? In methyl carbanion central carbon atom is sp3 hybridised. ii. The methyl carbanion is isoelectronic with ammonia. iii. Increase in the S character of hybridised state of carbanion carbon atom destabilize the anion.
Answer
B. Only i and ii
40
Which of the following compound do not show geometrical isomerism?
Answer
A. 1-propene
41
The configuration (RS notation) at C – 2 and C – 3 of the compound below is COOH - OH Н- Н HO · COOH
Answer
C. 2R 3R
42
Which reagent is used in the Wurtz reaction for the formation of alkanes?
Answer
B. Na/ether
43
The rate-determining step in free radical halogenation is
Answer
B. Propagation
44
Which of the following favors the E2 mechanism?
Answer
D. Strong base
45
In the Diels-Alder reaction, the diene must be in which conformation?
Answer
A. Cis
46
Which group is an ortho/para director in Electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions?
Answer
A. –OH
47
According to Huckel's rule, aromatic compounds must have
Answer
D. None of these
48
In an SN2 reaction, the rate depends on
Answer
A. The concentration of both the Substrate and Nucleophile
49
Which reaction is used to prepare aryl halides from diazonium salts?
Answer
C. Sandmeyer reaction
50
Which of the following is least reactive towards nucleophilic substitution?
Answer
A. Vinyl chloride
51
Pyridine is aromatic because it obeys some conditions. One of those is, it has
Answer
B. 6\pi electrons
52
Which of the following is prepared using Skraup synthesis?
Answer
D. Quinoline
53
On oxidation, furfural gives
Answer
B. Furoic acid
54
Predict the product of the following reaction: adiponitrile treated with ethoxide (C₂H₅O⁻).
Answer
A. Official structure A: 2-cyanocyclopentanone
55
Predict the product of the below mentioned reaction: the printed fused α,β-unsaturated diketone is treated with NaBH₄.
Answer
A. Official structure A: right-hand ketone reduced to the alcohol; left enone carbonyl retained
56
The base catalysed condensation reaction between an \alpha-halo ester and an aldehyde to give glycidic ester is called
Answer
C. Darzen's reaction
57
cis 1,2-dimethyl cyclohexane 1,2-diol on treating with dilute acid gives
Answer
B. 2,2-dimethyl cyclohexanone
58
Predict the product for the following reaction: phenylacetic acid treated with Br₂/PCl₃ in benzene at 80°C.
Answer
D. Official structure D: α-bromophenylacetic acid
59
Choose the major product for the below given reaction from the given options. (CH3)3COOH, OSO4 tertiary butanol, base
Answer
D. cis 1,2-cyclohexane diol
60
Choose the product of the below given reaction.
Answer
A. Official chemical structure diagram A (phenyl-substituted exocyclic cyclopentane alkene, as drawn)
61
Hinsberg reagent is
Answer
B. benzenesulphonyl chloride
62
Choose the correct order of basicity of amines from the below given options.
Answer
A. HN > NH2 > NH3
63
Identify the following reaction. \(R \longrightarrow R \longrightarrow R \longrightarrow R \longrightarrow R \longrightarrow R \longrightarrow R \longrightarrow R \longrightarrow R \longrightarrow R \longrightarrow\)
Answer
B. Curtius rearrangement
64
Predict the major product from the below given options: benzene treated with fuming HNO₃ and oleum at 100°C.
Answer
A. 1,3,5-trinitrobenzene
65
_____ is a synthetic fibre made using acrylonitrile.
Answer
C. Orlon
66
For one mole of hydrogen gas, van der Waal's equation can be rearranged as
Answer
D. PV – Pb = RT
67
Which among the following statements is correct?
Answer
B. Surface tension of a liquid becomes zero at critical temperature.
68
In the first order X-ray diffraction by a crystal when the interplanar spacing is equal to the wavelength of X-ray, what could be the angle of diffraction?
Answer
A. 30°
69
The number of space lattices and space groups for monoclinic system respectively are
Answer
C. 2, 13
70
Under identical conditions, 100 mL of hydrogen gas effuses through a tiny hole in 2 minutes, while same volume of an unknown gas (A) effuses in 8 minutes. Gas A is
Answer
D. Oxygen
71
Assuming 20% vibrational contribution, what could be the estimated value for Cv of CO2 at room temperature?
Answer
C. 3.3 R
72
At sublimation temperature, during the phase transition, free energy change can be represented as
Answer
B. \Delta G = 0
73
For a 10% decomposition represented as AB_2C_2 \rightleftharpoons AB_2 + C_2 at 5 atmosphere pressure, the value of equilibrium constant at constant pressure can be approximately
Answer
A. 0.05 atmosphere
74
Which among the following is basic in aqueous solution?
Answer
C. CH3COOK
75
What will be the approximate pH of a solution obtained by mixing 50 mL each of 0.04 M KOH and 0.03 M H2SO4 solutions?
Answer
B. 2.0
76
Variance at congruent melting point of a two-component system as per the condensed equation of phase rule is
Answer
C. 0
77
What concentration of a weak acid (Ka = 10-7) is required to prepare a buffer solution with a pH of 8, given that the concentration of its salt (formed with a strong base) is 0.1 N?
Answer
D. 0.01 N
78
The enthalpy change, ∆H for the reaction 2H_2 + O_2 \rightarrow 2H_2O is [Given bond enthalpies: H – H = 436 kJ/mol, O = O = 498 kJ/mol, O – H = 463 kJ/mol].
Answer
C. -970 kJ
79
For 1 mole of an ideal gas expanding isothermally from 10 L to 50 L at 300 K, the entropy change is
Answer
B. 57.6 J/K
80
A Carnot engine operates between 1200 K and 600 K. If it absorbs 1500 J, what is the work output?
Answer
A. 750 J
81
In a Joule-Thomson expansion, which of the following remains constant?
Answer
D. Enthalpy (H)
82
For a real gas undergoing a Joule-Thomson expansion, the inversion temperature (Ti) is the temperature at which the Joule-Thomson coefficient (µJT) is zero. If the van der Waal's constants for a gas are a = 4.2 L2 atm/mol2 and b = 0.042 L/mol, the inversion temperature (Ti) is
Answer
D. 252.3 K
83
Which of the following statements about thermodynamic laws and principles is/are incorrect? 1. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics states that if two systems are in thermal equilibrium with a third system, they may not necessarily be in equilibrium with each other. 2. First Law of Thermodynamics states that the total energy of an isolated system increases over time. 3. Second Law of Thermodynamics states that entropy of an isolated system remains constant in all natural processes. 4. Third Law of Thermodynamics states that the entropy of a perfect crystal at absolute zero is zero. 5. Hess's Law states that enthalpy change of a reaction depends on the reaction pathway.
Answer
C. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5
84
A reaction's rate constant doubles when the temperature increases from 300 K to 310 K. Assuming Arrhenius behavior, what is the approximate activation energy (Ea) in kJ/mol?
Answer
B. 63 kJ/mol
85
Which of the following statements about adsorption is correct?
Answer
C. Freundlich isotherm accounts for heterogeneous surface adsorption.
86
Which of the following isotherms explains chemisorption?
Answer
A. Langmuir
87
For a reaction A + B \rightarrow Products, the rate law is r = k[A][B]3. The change in the rate of the reaction when the concentration of A is tripled without affecting the concentration of B is
Answer
D. Increases to 27 times
88
For a reaction where the rate constant (k) has units of L2 mol-2 s-1, what is the order of the reaction?
Answer
D. Third-order
89
Larger ions satisfy Walden's rule more accurately than the smaller ions. This is because
Answer
B. Smaller ions are more solvated than larger ions
90
For a solution of a strong electrolyte at a particular temperature, the Debye-Huckel- Onsager equation is
Answer
A. \Lambda_{m} = \Lambda_{m}^{0} - \left(A + B \Lambda_{m}^{0}\right) c^{\frac{1}{2}}
91
The liquid junction potential arises due to
Answer
C. The difference in diffusion rates of cations and anions
92
Hittorf's method for the determination of transport number is based on The Wein effect and Debye-Falkenhagen effect respectively describes gradient
Answer
D. Conductance under high potential gradient and conductance under high frequencies
93
The Wein effect and debye-Falkenhagen effect respectively describes
Answer
D. Conductance under high potential gradient and conductance under high A.C. frequencies
94
The molar ionic conductance at infinite dilution of NaOH, NaCl and BaCl2 are 0.025, 0.0125 and 0.028 S m2mol-1 respectively. Calculate the molar ionic conductance at infinite dilution of Ba(OH)2.
Answer
A. 0.053 S m2mol-1
95
The selection rules that govern the transitions leading to rotational-vibrational Raman spectrum are
Answer
C. \Delta v = +1 and \Delta J = 0, \pm 2
96
The hyperfine structure in the ESR spectrum of methyl radical consists of
Answer
B. Four equally spaced lines
97
The vibrational degrees of freedom of H2O and CO2 molecules are respectively
Answer
D. 3 and 4
98
The rotational spectrum of a rigid diatomic molecule consists of
Answer
A. Equally spaced lines with spacing equal to 2B
99
An organic compound with molecular formula C3H6O gives three signals in its 1H NMR spectrum. The compound is more likely to be
Answer
D. An aldehyde
100
An electronic transition takes so rapidly that a vibrating molecule does not changes its internuclear distance appreciably during the transition. This is in accordance with
Answer
B. Franck-Condon principle
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