| Post Name | Junior Chemist/Assistant Conservation Officer - Mininig And Geology |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 010/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 186/2025, 278/2024 |
| Date of Test | 20 January 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A cation X3+ possess an electronic conïŹguration of [Kr]4d10 . The element X belongs to
Answer
B. p-block
2
Which of the following is true about the ion-exchange process of separation of rare earth elements?
Answer
C. Lu3+ has minimum ïŹrmness in column compared to La 3+
3
Synthetic zeolite HZSM-5 is obtained by
Answer
D. Replacing H+ with Na+
4
The structure of a borane is edge contracted icosahedron with two missing vertices. Identify from the following.
Answer
A. C2B7H13
5
The conïŹguration which exhibits z-in Jahn Teller distortion is
Answer
B. Octahedral d1
6
The energy trend in LMCT transition follows the order
Answer
A. MnO4- < CrO42- < VO43-
7
Consider the reaction [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ + [Cr(OH2)6]4+ Âź [(NH3)5Co(m-Cl)Cr(OH2)5]4+ H2O This belongs to
Answer
Question Cancelled
8
The [NiCl4]2- is paramagnetic while [Ni(CN)4]2- is diamagnetic. The correct explanation for this ïŹnding is
Answer
B. Tetrahedral and Square planar ïŹeld respectively
9
The electronic spectrum of [Ti(H2O)]3+ shows a single broad peak with maximum at 20300 cm-1. The CFSE is found to be
Answer
Question Cancelled
10
When tris (pentaïŹuorophenyl) borane is treated with XeF 2 in dichloromethane, the process of xenodeborylation is characterised by the formation of
Answer
B. Xe-C bond
11
Which of the following term symbol cannot exist for Ti 2+ ion?
Answer
D. 3S
12
For the complex ion [Cr(H2O)6]3+, the transition which is not allowed in electronic spectrum is
Answer
A. 4T2g Âź4T1g
13
Which of the following species has the lowest value C-O stretching frequency?
Answer
B. [Ti(CO)6]2-
14
The complex which does not obey EAN rule is
Answer
B. [Fe(CO)4]2+
15
The total number of lines predicted theoretically in the ESR spectrum of bis(salicylaldimine)copper(II) is (given I(â¶ÂłCu) = 3/2)
Answer
C. 60
16
When bis(h5 - cyclopentadienyl) iron (II) is treated with a strong acid like HBF4, it produces
Answer
D. [Fe(C5H5)2]+[BF4]-
17
Which of the following can act as superconducting Chevrel phase?
Answer
D. Cu2Mo6Se8
18
The metal that forms part of active site of nitrogenase enzyme produced by certain bacteria is
Answer
C. Molybdenum
19
Which of the following is not true about sodium-potassium pump is animal cells?
Answer
A. The pump has higher aïŹnity for K + than Na+ ions
20
The heart imaging agent (MIBI scan) cardiolite uses the isotope of
Answer
C. Technetium
21
When graphite is treated with excess of potassium, copper-coloured material is resulted. Which of the following is true regarding the intercalation?
Answer
A. Changes staggered layers of graphite to eclipsed layers
22
A radioactive nuclide designated as emits a b - particle followed by an a-particle. The number of neutrons present in the resultant atom is
Answer
Question Cancelled
23
Arsenic poisoning evident from the hair strands can be detected using
Answer
B. Neutron activation analysis
24
Which of the following is true about reaction cross-section in a nuclear reaction?
Answer
A. Slow neutron capture cross section varies inversely with neutron velocity
25
In a crystalline lattice, element X form ccp lattice and 1/3rd of tetrahedral voids is filled by atoms of element Y. The formula of the compound will be
Answer
D. X3Y2
26
Which of the following is a molecular solid?
Answer
C. SO2
27
The crystal defect arises in compounds of transition metals which exhibit variable oxidation state is
Answer
B. Metal deficiency defect
28
Piezoelectric crystals possessing permanent dipoles are said to have
Answer
B. ferroelectricity
29
When fullerene is treated with potassium, the resulting compound is
Answer
A. K2C60
30
For an inverse spinel structure with divalent cation (XII) and trivalent cation (YIII), which of the following statement is true?
Answer
B. XII â Transition metal with higher CFSE, YIII â transition metal with lower CFSE
31
Select the correct IUPAC name of the following compound
Answer
D. 2,6,6-Trimethylbicyclo [3.1.1] hept-2-ene
32
Assign R & S configuration to the carbon atom labelled as 1 & 2
Answer
B. lR,2S
33
The number of Optical isomers, the below given compound can give will be
Answer
A. 4
34
Which of the following species below are aromatic?
Answer
B. (iii) & (v)
35
Which among the following is a better Diels Alder diene reacting with maleic anhydride?
Answer
A. Furan
36
Arrange the following compounds in the order of decreasing basicity
Answer
C. III, I, II
37
Which among the following statement is NOT true when multiple substituents are present on the aromatic ring:
Answer
D. The stabilization of intermediate carbocation has no effect on directing effect
38
The correct order of the rate of solvolysis for the following chlorides in acetic acid is
Answer
Question Cancelled
39
With cis-alkene singlet carbenes give cis-product whereas triplet carbene gives
Answer
C. both cis- & trans-product
40
Identify the product of the following reaction. Figure: cyclohexanone reacts with methyl vinyl ketone under base with loss of HâO.
Answer
C. Fused bicyclic α,ÎČ-unsaturated cyclohexanone, as drawn
41
The kinetic product formed in the following reaction is. Figure: 2-naphthol is treated with concentrated HâSOâ.
Answer
D. 2-hydroxynaphthalene with SOâH ortho above the OH-bearing carbon, as drawn
42
Identify the product. Figure: cyclobutane-1,2-dione is treated with (i) OHâ» and (ii) HâO/Hâș.
Answer
A. 1-hydroxycyclopropane-1-carboxylic acid
43
Identify the products A and B in the following reaction. Figure: a 4-methyl-4-X-cyclohexa-2,5-dienone undergoes acid-catalysed rearrangement; X = CâHâ
gives A and X = COOCâHâ
gives B.
Answer
A. A: phenol with CHâ para and CâHâ
meta to OH; B: phenol with CHâ para and COOCâHâ
meta to OH
44
Choose the correct product. Figure: a cyclohexane bearing a carboxylic acid group and an acetyl side chain is treated with LiAlHâ.
Answer
C. Acetyl group reduced to a secondary alcohol and carboxylic acid reduced to CHâOH, as drawn
45
Match Column I with Column II and select the correct answer from the options. Column I Column II A. i. Li/Liq. NH 3 B. ii. NH2.NH2 .O2 /Cu2+ C. iii. LiAlH4/Ether D. iv. NaBH 4/CeCI3,7H2O
Answer
Question Cancelled
46
Match Column I with Column II and select the correct answer from the options Column I Column II A. i PCC/CH2Cl2 B. ii. DDQ/Benzene C. iii. OsO4/Py D. iv. SeO 2
Answer
D. A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
47
Predict the product of the reaction. Figure: PhâCH=CHâCH=NâOH is treated with PClâ
.
Answer
C. Quinoline structure, as drawn
48
Select the reagent for the synthon shown. Figure: a positively charged carbon bonded to R, OH and an alkyl group.
Answer
D. A substituted epoxide, as drawn
49
Which of the following compounds act as protecting group for alcohols?
Answer
D. All of the above
50
The first person to separate a racemic mixture into individual enantiomers is
Answer
C. Louis Pasteur
51
In the Jablonski diagram of energy transitions. non-radiative decay refers to
Answer
C. Energy losses resulting from vibrations and or rotations
52
Identify the major product of the reaction. Figure: cis-1-iodo-3-methylcyclohexane is treated with NaSCâHâ
in propane.
Answer
C. CHâ solid wedge and SCâHâ
dashed wedge
53
How many different types of protons are present in allyl chloride molecule?
Answer
C. 4
54
What number 1H NMR signals are observed for the following compound?
Answer
D. 4
55
Identify the compound that exhibits the following spectral data. IR: Îœ 1685 cmâ»Âč; ÂčH NMR: ÎŽ 7.84 (d, J = 8 Hz, 2H), 7.60 (d, J = 8 Hz, 2H), 3.65 (t, J = 7 Hz, 2H), 3.18 (t, J = 7 Hz, 2H), 2.25 (pentet, J = 7 Hz, 2H). ÂčÂłC NMR: ÎŽ 28.36, 45, 128, 130, 133, 137, 197. EI MS m/z: 200, 198 (1:1), 185, 183 (1:1).
Answer
A. Clâ(CHâ)ââC(=O)âp-bromophenyl
56
The UV absorption wavelength of 1,3 -butadiene is 217 nm. Calculate the absorption wavelength (in nm) of the conjugated system given below: (Use these absorption values for auxochromic groups: substituent / ring residue: +5, exo-cyclic double bond: +5: every additional conjugated C=C +30)
Answer
B. 282 nm
57
Which one of the following is a bicyclic monoterpene?
Answer
A. a - pinene
58
Which among the following amino acid contains an indole ring?
Answer
D. Tryptophan
59
For the following transformations to occur thermally, what pericyclic reaction must occur?
Answer
B. Electrocyclic ring opening, Diels Alder Reaction
60
If 30% of an organismâs DNA is thymine, then it has
Answer
B. 20% Guanine
61
The temperature at which the second virial coefficient vanishes is known as
Answer
C. Boyle temperature
62
The sum of all axes of symmetry elements shown by a cubic crystal will be
Answer
D. 13
63
The equilibrium constant for the reaction Nâ(g) + 3Hâ(g) â 2NHâ(g) is given as K. Then, the equilibrium constant for the reaction NHâ(g) â 1/2 Nâ(g) + 3/2 Hâ(g) is equal to
Answer
C. 1/âK
64
Consider statements about activity a and activity coefficient Îł: (i) for real gases, a is inversely proportional to P; (ii) a is the ratio of fugacity to standard-state fugacity; (iii) Îł = P/a; (iv) Îł = a/P. Which are correct?
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iv)
65
The internal energy (E) per mole of a gas is related to partition function (q) as
Answer
A. E = RTÂČ[â ln q/âT]ᔄ
66
According to the Maxwellâs distribution, the most probable velocity of a gas
Answer
B. Increases with increase in temperature
67
A magenta-coloured non-stoichiometric compound is formed when KCl crystals are exposed to potassium metal vapour. This compound shows
Answer
D. Cl- ion vacancies filled with electrons
68
The Sucker-Tetrode equation is a statistical-mechanical expression used to calculate
Answer
A. Entropy of ideal monatomic gas
69
Based on the Gibbs-Helmholtz relation, under which conditions will a thermodynamic process remain spontaneous at all temperatures?
Answer
D. H < 0 and S>0
70
Variation of chemical potential of any constituent i of a gaseous system with pressure, will be equal to
Answer
A. Partial molar volume
71
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding physisorption?
Answer
D. The enthalpy change ( Hadsorption) is small and positive
72
In a BET adsorption isotherm, Point B corresponds to:
Answer
B. Completion of monolayer adsorption
73
The Auger process involves:
Answer
C. Non-radiative relaxation with emission of an electron
74
Consider the following statements about LEED: (i) It uses electrons of energy 20â200 eV. (ii) It provides information about surface crystallography. (iii) Electrons penetrate several micrometers, so bulk structure is studied Which of the above are correct?
Answer
A. (i) and (ii)
75
The diffusion current in polarography is proportional to
Answer
C. concentration of analyte
76
Amperometric sensors are highly selective primarily because
Answer
B. the applied potential is chosen for a specific redox process
77
If the unit of the rate constant of a reaction is L3mo1-3s-1, the order of the reaction is:
Answer
D. 4
78
According to Arrhenius equation (k = rate constant and T = temperature)
Answer
A. ln k decreases linearly with 1/T
79
Assertion (A): In reactions between ionic species, a plot of log k versus gives a straight line whose slope depends on the charges of the reacting ions. Reason (R): According to the Bronsted-Bjerrum equation, the rate constant varies with ionic strength through a term proportional to the product of the ionic charges (Z AZB). Choose the correct option:
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
80
In homogeneous catalysis, the rate enhancement mainly arises due to:
Answer
B. Formation of an intermediate with lower activation energy
81
Classical mechanics fails for atomic systems primarily because it assumes that
Answer
B. Electrons radiate energy continuously when accelerated
82
Hermitian operators must have:
Answer
B. Real eigenvalues and orthogonal eigenfunctions
83
The zero-point energy of the harmonic oscillator exists because:
Answer
C. x and p cannot both be zero simultaneously
84
For a particle in a box, which change produces the largest decrease in energy spacing?
Answer
D. Tripling the length
85
The first excited vibrational state of SHO has how many nodes?
Answer
B. 1
86
For the term symbol ÂłPâ, the correct values are
Answer
A. S=1, L=1, J=2
87
Which term is NOT included in a typical molecular mechanics force-field equation?
Answer
C. Electron correlation energy
88
Which heat capacity value is predicted by the DulongâPetit law at high temperatures?
Answer
B. 3 R per mole
89
For point group C3v, how many irreducible representations exist?
Answer
B. 3
90
A quadrupole splitting in Mössbauer spectroscopy requires:
Answer
A. A non-zero nuclear quadrupole moment
91
The F test is mostly used...
Answer
B. For testing of significance
92
Identify the techniques which is most likely to be used in quantitative analysis?
Answer
A. Multivariate analysis
93
Which of the following option is appropriate for the TGA and DTA?
Answer
B. TGA measures only weight while DTA measures other effects
94
In reverse phase chromatography the stationary phase is made of
Answer
A. Non-polar
95
Supercritical CO2 is used as
Answer
C. A Solvent for extraction of organic compound from natural sources
96
Which of the following is not a principle of Green Chemistry?
Answer
C. Hazardous chemical synthesis
97
What process accounts for the fact that the water on Earth now is the same water that has been on Earth for 4 billion years?
Answer
B. Water Cycle
98
Quantum dots can be used in
Answer
B. Optoelectronics
99
Piezoelectric effect is observed when materials produce electric charges when
Answer
B. Mechanical Stress is applied
100
Which of the following is a green solvent used for bleaching clothes?
Answer
A. Hydrogen peroxide
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