| Post Name | Junior Co-operative Inspector, Assistant etc. |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 013/2026 |
| Category Code | 235/2024, 372/2025, 374/2025, 379/2025, 380/2025, 381/2025 |
| Date of Test | 28 February 2026 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Assertion (A): In a cooperative society, decision-making is based on the principle of one member, one vote, regardless of the amount of capital contributed.
Reason (R): This voting principle ensures that all members have an equal say in the management of the cooperative, reflecting the democratic nature of cooperatives.
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2
Which of the following statements accurately describes a distinguishing feature of a
cooperative enterprise compared to a joint-stock company ?
Answer
C. Cooperatives typically prioritize member benefits and services over profit, while
joint-stock companies focus on maximizing returns for shareholders.
3
Which of the following best describes the concept of a cooperative common wealth?
Answer
C. A community where cooperative organizations play a central role in the economy, emphasizing mutual aid and democratic control
4
match the following theories and principles with their proponents :
List – I List – II
i. Invisible hand a. Karl marx
ii. Surplus value b. Adam Smith
iii. Cooperative commonwealth c. Robert Owen
iv. Creative destruction d. Joseph Schumpeter
Codes :
i ii iii iv
Answer
B. b a c d
5
Consider the following features :
i. limited liability for owners.
ii. democratic control and member participation.
iii. Profit distribution based on investment.
iv. Focus on social and economic benefits for members.
Which features are most characteristic of a cooperative organization ?
Answer
D. ii and iv
6
Which of the following statement/s about IFFCO are correct ?
1. IFFCO was registered as a multi-unit cooperative society.
2. It has emerged as one of the most successful cooperative societies in India.
3. The organization can undertake activities such as setting up plants for the
manufacture of chemical fertilizers and allied products/by-products.
Answer
D. 1,2 and3
7
Which of the following statements correctly describe the objectives of KRIBHCO ?
1. To strengthen the cooperative system.
2. To diversify into other core sectors like power, port, infrastructure and rural retail.
3. To transfer technology for modern farming and improve farmers livelihoods.
4. To educate and train farmers, and provide free testing facilities for soil nutrients
and irrigation water.
Answer
A. All are correct
8
Match the following NDDB programs with their corresponding objectives.
List I (Programs): i. Operation Flood; ii. National Dairy Plan; iii. Dairy Cooperative Development.
List II (Objectives): a. To develop dairy cooperatives and infrastructure; b. To create a nationwide milk grid and improve milk production; c. To enhance milk production and improve socio-economic conditions of dairy farmers.
Codes (i, ii, iii):
Answer
A. b, c, a
9
The National Cooperative development Corporation (NCdC) operates under which
ministry ?
Answer
C. ministry of Cooperation
10
Which of the following statements about State Cooperative Banks are correct?
1. State Cooperative Banks act as the apex institutions in the cooperative credit structure, providing refinancing to PACS and urban cooperative banks.
2. They primarily focus on providing short-term credit to individual farmers.
3. They are managed by the Central Government and have no involvement in cooperative credit.
4. They are involved in medium-term and long-term credit for rural development.
Answer
B. 1 and 4 are correct
11
Which of the following statements correctly describe the objectives of Consumer Cooperatives?
1. To improve the standard of living of consumers.
2. To inculcate the habit of savings among the consumers.
3. To stabilize the market rates.
4. To supply the goods and services at reasonable prices.
5. To undertake research and development work for reduction in the cost of production.
Answer
D. All are correct except
12
Consider the following statements:
1. MATSYAFED is an apex federation of primary level Fishermen Development Welfare Cooperative Societies.
2. The administration and management of MATSYAFED is normally vested with a Board of Directors directly appointed by the Government.
3. MATSYAFED has been implementing the NCDC assisted Integrated Fisheries Development Projects for assisting the traditional fishermen of Kerala.
Which of the following is true?
Answer
B. All are correct except
13
Functions of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) include:
1. To accept deposits.
2. To provide short and medium term credit.
3. To supply raw materials for industrial production.
4. To undertake to educate, advise, and work for the welfare of its members.
Which of the following is true?
Answer
C. All are correct except
14
Which of the following statements about NABARd is incorrect ?
Answer
C. NABARd was established under the RBI Act of 1934.
15
The Kerala State Hand loom Weavers Cooperative Society ltd. is known as
Answer
B. HANTEx
16
Which of the following are the categories of Coir Cooperative Societies in Kerala ?
Answer
C. Both
17
Which organization was formed in the State of Kerala as part of the National dairy
Programme ‘Operation flood’ ?
Answer
C. Kerala Cooperative milk marketing federation (KCmmf)
18
match the contributions to cooperative principles with the correct description :
List – I List – II
i. Rochdale Pioneers a. Refined principles to include modern values
and social concerns
ii. ICA 1966 Principles b. Introduced the foundational seven principles for
cooperatives
iii. ICA 1995 Principles c. focused on the application of principles in the
Indian context
iv. Karve Committee d. Updated principles to reflect contemporary issues
and the distinction between values and principles
Codes :
i ii iii iv
Answer
B. b a d c
19
Which of the following statements about the ICA principles is correct ?
1. The Rochdale principles were introduced in 1844 and laid the foundation for
cooperative organizations.
2. The ICA 1966 principles introduced the concept of ‘Concern for Community’ for
the first time.
3. The ICA 1995 principles distinguished between cooperative values and
cooperative principles to address contemporary issues.
4. The Karve Committee’s recommendations were focused on the global
cooperative principles rather than the Indian context.
Answer
B. Statements 1 and 3 are correct
20
Who is the recipient of the 2024 Kerala State government Robert Owen Award ?
Answer
B. Koliakode N. Krishnan Nair
21
In which year did the successful cooperative society known as the Rochdale Pioneers
form ?
Answer
C. 1844
22
Which of the following principles were classified as ‘Essential Principles’ by the ICA in
1937 ?
1. Open Membership, Democratic Control and Limited Interest on Share Capital.
2. Patronage Dividend, Religious and Political Neutrality.
3. Cash Trading, Promotion of Education and Selling Pure and Unadulterated Goods.
Answer
A. Both 1 and
23
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the definition of auditing ?
i. Auditing involves verifying the arithmetical accuracy of the books of accounts and
examining the correctness of transactions.
ii. L. R. Dicksee defined auditing as an examination of accounting records to
establish if they correctly and completely reflect the transactions.
iii. Spicer and Pegler defined auditing as an examination to ensure that the balance
sheet gives a true and fair view of the state of affairs of the business.
Answer
B. All of the above i, ii and iii
24
What is correct about the Regulation and Auditing of Cooperative Societies ?
i. A cooperative society is formed under the provision of Cooperative Act, 1912.
ii. In Kerala, the accounts of cooperative institutions are maintained as per the
regulations of ‘The Kerala State Cooperative Act of 1969’.
iii. The audit of accounts of cooperative institutions in Kerala is optional.
Answer
C. Only i and ii
25
What is correct regarding the audit of cooperative societies under the Kerala Cooperative
Societies Act, 1969 ?
i. The account of every society shall be audited at least once a year by the
Registrar or a person authorized by the Registrar.
ii. The audit includes an examination of overdue debts, verification of cash balance
and securities and valuation of assets and liabilities of the society.
iii. The Registrar may audit the accounts of a society only upon receiving a request
from the society’s management.
Answer
C. Only i and ii
26
Which of the following is/are the main features of Cooperative Audit ?
i. Adherence to Cooperative Principles.
ii. Verification of balances of depositors and creditors.
iii. Audit classification of society.
Answer
D. All of the above i, ii and iii
27
When does the audit of a society’s accounts typically extend back to ?
i. The start of the current cooperative year.
ii. The last date covered by the previous audit.
iii. The start of the society’s formation.
Answer
A. Only ii
28
Why might an auditor be held liable for negligence if a fraud occurs during the audit
period ?
i. Because the auditor is expected to detect all fraudulent activities.
ii. Because the auditor should verify the accuracy of financial statements.
iii. Because the auditor has a duty to investigate and question suspicious transactions.
Answer
A. Only ii and iii
29
How does the Kerala Cooperative Societies Act empower the Registrar in dispute
resolution ?
i. The Registrar can act as an arbitrator.
ii. The Registrar has the powers of a civil court.
iii. The Registrar can delegate dispute resolution to society members.
Answer
A. Only i and ii
30
What is correct about the fees for deciding disputes in cooperative societies as per
Sub Rule 10 ?
i. for monetary disputes, the fee is 50 paise for every Rs. 10 or part thereof, with a
minimum of Rs. 75 and a maximum of Rs. 750 upto Rs. 1 lakh.
ii. for monetary disputes above Rs. 1 lakh, the fee is Rs. 1,500.
iii. for non-monetary disputes, the fee is Rs. 1,500.
Answer
Question Cancelled
31
Which of the following procedures must be followed by the arbitrator according to
Sub Rules (7) and
Answer
D. All of the above i, ii, iii, iv and v
32
Why must the party filing a reference produce certified copies of records and
statements ?
i. To verify the accuracy of the dispute details.
ii. To support the claims made in the application when requested by the Registrar
or Arbitration Court.
iii. To ensure the defendant is aware of all the records involved.
Answer
A. Only ii
33
How does Sub-Section (4) of Section 70A ensure the functioning of the Cooperative
Arbitration Courts ?
i. By requiring the Registrar or the Government to provide necessary officers and
employees.
ii. By allowing the CAC to recruit their own staff independently.
iii. By giving the CAC direct control over the budget and finances.
Answer
A. Only i
34
Why is cooperation considered to be the noblest ideal according to J. S. mill ?
i. It focuses on competition and monopolistic control.
ii. It operates as a self-governing economic system without dependence on the
political state.
iii. It establishes socio-economic harmony.
Answer
B. Only ii and iii
35
What distinguishes cooperatives from the highly commercialized economy ?
i. Cooperatives are based on mutual aid and personal relations.
ii. Cooperatives operate on market-driven pricing mechanisms.
iii. Cooperatives consist of complex, impersonal interactions.
Answer
C. Only i
36
Which of the following best describes the two elements distinguished by dr. fauquet
in cooperative institutions ?
i. The association or social element and the undertaking.
ii. Economic element.
iii. The market or financial element and the organizational or structural element.
Answer
B. Only i and ii
37
How does the social character of cooperation compare to its economic character ?
i. The social character predominates over the economic character, emphasizing
human dignity and equality.
ii. The economic character is more significant than the social character in
cooperative relationships.
iii. Both social and economic characters are treated equally with no predominance.
Answer
A. Only i
38
Which of the following stages is not identified by Rita Rhodes as part of the critical
stages in the development process of a cooperative ?
i. Crisis of Credibility
ii. Crisis management
iii. Crisis Ideology
iv. Crisis of Innovation
Answer
D. Only iv
39
What does the ‘greenhouse’ approach prioritize in its method of fostering organizational
development ?
i. Imposing top-down management models regardless of local conditions.
ii. Creating a hospitable climate that allows local efforts to grow independently.
iii. Rapid transformation of political and economic systems to fit organizational
needs.
iv. External intervention and control to ensure organizational success.
Answer
B. Only ii
40
How does an increase in paid-up capital affect a cooperative society’s owned funds ?
i. It decreases the total amount of owned funds.
ii. It has no impact on the owned funds.
iii. It increases the total amount of owned funds.
iv. It primarily affects the society’s external borrowings.
Answer
C. Only iii
41
What is a key benefit of using retained surpluses as a source of funds for a cooperative ?
i. The funds are paid out to members immediately without any cost.
ii. The cooperative avoids paying interest on these funds.
iii. The funds are required to be used for short-term operational expenses.
iv. The cooperative can distribute these funds to members annually.
Answer
B. Only ii
42
Which factor does the Registrar not consider when forwarding an application for a
government loan or subsidy ?
i. The financial position of the cooperative society.
ii. The eligibility of the cooperative society for the loan or subsidy.
iii. The historical performance of the society’s management.
iv. The desirability of sanctioning the loan or subsidy to the society.
Answer
C. Only iii
43
Which of the following distinguishes commercial providers of funds from non-commercial
providers ?
i. Non-commercial providers offer credit at below-market rates or grants, while
commercial providers seek profit and require collateral.
ii. Non-commercial providers seek to minimize risk, while commercial providers are
motivated by social or political reasons.
iii. Commercial providers offer grants, while non-commercial providers offer loans
secured by collateral.
iv. Both commercial and non-commercial providers use the same terms for credit
and grants.
Answer
A. Only i
44
Which of the following is not a form of state aid to cooperatives in India ?
i. legislative Aid
ii. Administrative Aid
iii. Technical Support
iv. financial Assistance
Answer
Question Cancelled
45
minimum number of persons required to form a cooperative society under Cooperative
Credit Societies Act, 1904 was
Answer
B. 10
46
One of the major features of the model Cooperative Societies Bill, 1991 was
Answer
A. No rule making power to the government
47
The Andhra Pradesh mutually Aided Cooperative Societies Act was based on
Answer
D. model Cooperative Societies Bill, 1991
48
The authority responsible for the administration of the multi-State Cooperative Societies
Act, 1984 vests with
Answer
C. Central Registrar of Cooperative Societies
49
Which is the supreme authority of a cooperative society under Kerala Cooperative
Societies Act, 1969 ?
Answer
B. general Body
50
The National development Council (NdC) Resolution in 1956, was linked with
Answer
A. Second five-year Plan
51
Under which banking system banks operate through a network of branches ?
Answer
C. Branch banking
52
Statement I : Unit banking system is popular in the USA.
Statement II : Branch banking promotes uniform banking practices.
Choose the correct answer :
Answer
A. Both true
53
Which deposit is included under CASA ?
Answer
C. Current and savings deposits
54
Credit creation by commercial banks is mainly based on
Answer
D. Primary and derived deposits
55
Statement I : RBI acts as banker to the government.
Statement II : RBI provides Ways and means Advances to State governments.
Choose the correct answer :
Answer
A. Both true
56
Open market Operations
Answer
B. Purchase and sale of government securities
57
Which of the following is a qualitative method of credit control ?
Answer
D. moral suasion
58
The Reserve Bank of India was established in the year
Answer
C. 1935
59
Name the banks which were merged to form the Imperial Bank of India in 1921 ?
Answer
C. Bank of Bombay, Bank of Bengal, Bank of madras
60
Which of the statements regarding Regional Rural Banks are correct ?
I. RRBs are primarily formed to lend to priority sectors in rural and semi-urban
areas.
II. RRBs were established under the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
III. The ownership structure of RRBs is shared between the Central government,
State government and the concerned Sponsor Bank.
Answer
A. Only Statements I and III are correct
61
Which of the following is/are the function/s of the lead Bank under the lead Bank
Scheme ?
Answer
D. All of the above
62
The National Credit Council (NCC), constituted in India, primarily aimed to
Answer
C. Advise the government and RBI on the allocation of institutional credit in
accordance with national priorities
63
Consider the following statements regarding the recommendations of the Narasimham
Committee (1991).
Statement I : The Committee recommended the introduction of prudential norms relating
to income recognition, asset classification and capital adequacy for banks.
Statement II : The Committee advocated greater operational autonomy for public sector
banks and a reduction in Statutory liquidity Ratio (SlR) and Cash Reserve Ratio
Answer
A. Only Statement I and Statement II are correct
64
Which of the following was not the objective behind permitting the entry of new generation
private sector banks in India ?
Answer
B. To increase government ownership in banking and to reduce the role of RBI in
banking regulation
65
Which of the following is a direct initiative of the Reserve Bank of India to promote
financial inclusion in India ?
Answer
D. Introduction of Basic Savings Bank deposit Account
66
Certain challenges are often faced by banks that come across with merger or acquisition.
Identify a major challenge from the following.
Answer
B. Difficulty in integrating different organizational cultures and systems
67
After recent amendments through the Banking Regulation
Answer
B. RBI’s powers over cooperative banks have been strengthened, and the definition of
“substantial interest” threshold is proposed to be increased from Rs. 5 lakh to
Rs. 2 crore to reflect current economic conditions
68
for a company to commence or carry on banking business in India under the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949, it must
Answer
B. Obtain a licence from the Reserve Bank of India under Section
69
Under Section 17 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, every banking company
Answer
C. Not less than 20% of its profits before declaration of dividend
70
Acquisition of the undertaking of a banking company under the Banking Regulation
Act, 1949 can generally be done by the Central government
Answer
C. After consultation with the Reserve Bank of India and following the prescribed
procedure
71
Which is not typically considered a special type of bank customer requiring specific
documentation ?
Answer
C. married women
72
In a joint bank account operated on “Either or Survivor” basis, upon death of one
holder
Answer
B. Survivor can operate and close the account
73
For opening a bank account of a partnership firm, the bank typically requires
Answer
A. Partnership deed and resolution authorizing signatories
74
Which is a key obligation of a banker towards the customer ?
Answer
B. To honour customer’s cheques if sufficient funds are available and no legal stop is
in place
75
Which of the following can endorse a bill of exchange ?
Answer
B. Payee
76
Who directs the bank to credit the cheque amount only into the bank account of the
payee named on the cheque and not pay it in cash or to anyone else ?
Answer
A. Account Payee
77
Who can convert a general crossing of cheque into a special crossing of cheque ?
Answer
B. Holder of the cheque
78
In which type of mortgage, the sale becomes void if the loan is repaid ?
Answer
A. mortgage by conditional sale
79
Who introduced KCC ?
i. Central government
ii. State government
iii. local Self government
iv. All of the above
Answer
C. i only
80
Which is the apex institution for rural credit and financing ?
Answer
C. NABARd
81
Which among the following is not a feature of micro financing ?
Answer
D. Target on high income group
82
Who first launched Self Help group bank linkage programme in India ?
Answer
A. NABARd
83
Which payment system in India allows 24 × 7 instant fund transfer including holidays ?
Answer
C. ImPS
84
Which card payment system is India’s domestic card network promoted by NPCI ?
Answer
D. RuPay
85
In which system are interbank funds settled individually and in real time ?
Answer
B. RTgS
86
Which system enables electronic image-based cheque clearing instead of physical
movement of cheques ?
Answer
C. CTS
87
CAmElS rating of banks is used to assess
Answer
B. financial health of banks
88
Which of the following forms part of Tier I Capital ?
Answer
C. Equity capital
89
An asset becomes a Non-Performing Asset (NPA) when interest or principal remains
overdue for more than
Answer
C. 90 days
90
Which Act empowers banks to recover dues by enforcing security interest without court
intervention ?
Answer
C. SARfAESI Act, 2002
91
Consider page reference string 1, 2, 0, 2, 5, 6, 2 with 3-page frames. find the number
of page faults using fIfO Page Replacement Algorithm.
Answer
C. 6
92
What is the main purpose of using overlays in memory management ?
Answer
B. To allow programs larger than memory to execute
93
A device that can interconnect two different networks having different protocols
Answer
D. gateway
94
What happens during a Denial of Service (DoS) attack?
Answer
C. A system or network is made unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic
95
Section 67A of the Information Technology Act deals with
Answer
C. Publishing or transmitting material containing sexually explicit acts in electronic form
96
Web crawlers in search engines are programs that
Answer
B. Automatically browse the internet to collect and update web page information
97
Which control structure allows you to choose between multiple alternatives ?
Answer
D. Switch-Case
98
Which type of storage device mainly benefits from disk defragmentation?
Answer
A. Hard Disk Drive (HDD)
99
Arrange the following memory types in decreasing order of speed
Answer
C. Registers → Cache → RAm → Hard disk
100
Study the table given below and answer the question :
Software example
A Windows
B mS Word
C Winzip
d mySQl
Which of the following correctly classifies the software listed in the table ?
Answer
B. A and C – System software; B and d – Application software
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