| Post Name | Junior Consultant(General Surgery) - Health Services |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 028/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 019/2024 |
| Date of Test | 27 March 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
In treating primary liver cancer with RFA, which is NOT correct?
Answer
C. Effective for tumours adjacent to major vessels
2
All are true with respiratory acidosis EXCEPT
Answer
A. Plasma Bicarbonate concentration is increased
3
Disadvantages of MRI are all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Contrast not used
4
Direct coupling is a term used with
Answer
D. Minimal access surgery
5
Glucose should not be used for initial fluid resuccitation in shock because
Answer
A. Already high extracellular glucose concentration exists in response to stress
6
All about hydatid cyst disease is true EXCEPT
Answer
B. Surgery offers 100% cure rate
7
Indication for endotracheal intubation in a critically ill patient are all except
Answer
C. Respiratory rate of less than 36/min
8
Which of the following is NOT true regarding anorectum?
Answer
A. The internal and sphincter is composed of skeletal muscles
9
Rotters nodes are
Answer
C. Interpectoral nodes
10
Right gastric artery is a branch of
Answer
B. Hepatic artery
11
Normal live weighs about
Answer
B. 1.5 kg
12
Raised edge is a feature of
Answer
A. Basal cell carcinoma
13
Retrieval of large tumours through port site in minimal access surgery can result in all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Intestinal injury
14
All are factors affecting wound healing EXCEPT
Answer
B. Good vascularity
15
The Hounsfield unit of air in CT scan is
Answer
C. -1000 Hu
16
All are true regarding treatment of phantom limb pain EXCEPT
Answer
D. Incidence is less if these was prolonged ischemia before amputation.
17
The only nutritional assessment index emcompassing history and clinical examination is
Answer
D. subjective global assessment
18
TRUE regarding Barretts esophagus is
Answer
A. Primary esophagectomy is justified
19
Following are true regarding Psoas abscess EXCEPT
Answer
D. Sacral spine commonly involved
20
The boundaries of triangle of safety are all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Serratus anterior muscle
21
Most common site of buccal cancer
Answer
A. Region near lower molar tooth
22
For fracture mandible the gold standard X-ray is
Answer
C. Orthopantamogram
23
Most common site of thyroglossal cyst
Answer
A. Beneath the hyoid
24
Pretibial myxoedema is a feature of
Answer
B. Primary hyperthyroidism
25
Diarrhoea is a clinical feature of
Answer
B. Medallary carcinoma thyroid
26
Absolute indication for surgery in primary hyper parathyroidism include all, except
Answer
D. Extravascular soft tissue calcification
27
Most common malignancy of parotid gland
Answer
D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
28
All are true about branchial cyst, except
Answer
B. Swelling beneath the posterior border of upper of sterno mastoid muscle
29
Types of selective neck dissection are all, except
Answer
D. Infra omohyoid neck dissection
30
Ultrasound scan features of malignancy in a thyroid nodule are all, except
Answer
D. Hyperechoic nodule
31
Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid clinically mimics
Answer
A. Riedels thyroiditis
32
MEN-I syndrome include all, except
Answer
D. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
33
Flap for reconstruction of carcinoma lip include all, EXCEPT
Answer
C. Criles flap
34
Drugs used in the medical management of hydrocephalus
Answer
D. Both (1) and (2)
35
Most common intracranial tumor in adult
Answer
A. Gliomas
36
The following lesions carry a definite risk of malignancy all, except
Answer
B. Oral submucous fibrosis
37
Most common site of malignant melanoma in oral cavity
Answer
A. Hard palate
38
Submandibular gland excision is indicated in
Answer
D. Both (2) and (3)
39
Causes of hypoparathyroidism include all, except
Answer
D. Congenital hypoplastic syndrome
40
Causes of primary adrenal insufficiency
Answer
C. both 1 and 2
41
In a subclavian artery block at outer border of rib, all of the following arteries helps in maintaining the circulation to upper limb except:
Answer
B. Superior thoracic artery
42
Both arterial and venous thrombosis occur in
Answer
A. Antiphospholipid antibodies
43
Which of the following statements about Luminal A subtype is TRUE?
Answer
C. It is characterized by high-expression levels of ER-related genes and low expression HER2 cluster and proliferation-associated genes
44
Not included in treatment of Buerger's disease
Answer
C. Endovascular stent
45
A 50-year-old male patient, an alcoholic and smoker presents with a 3 hours of severe retrosternal chest pain and increasing shortness of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was constant and radiated to the back and intersapular region. He was a known hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130/min and BP of 80/40 mm/Hg. JVP was normal. All peripheral pulses were present and equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest X-ray showed left pleural effusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
A. Acute aortic dissection
46
Which of the following scenario is considered a contraindication to the use of tamoxifen?
Answer
B. A history of deep vein thrombosis, stroke, pulmonary embolism, or transient ischemic attack
47
After doing a graft repair of a thoraco-abdominal aneurysm, the patients developed weakness. Most probable cause for this
Answer
C. Discontinuation of arteria radicularis magna
48
Oliver's sign is seen in
Answer
B. Aortic arch aneurysm
49
A 32-year-old female underwent BCS for carcinoma of breast. She was diagnosed to have T2NIMO, IBC, grade 2, hormone-negative, Her 2-neu-positive disease with microscopic positive margin, LVSI+. She then received chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Answer
D. (2) and (3)
50
Which of the following statement is true regarding subclavian steal syndrome?
Answer
A. Reversal of blood flow in ipsilateral vertebral artery
51
Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hypertrophy of
Answer
C. Smooth muscle cells
52
A 38-year-old lady in her second trimester felt a lumpiness in her breast. Ultrasound showed a suspicious dominant mass and biopsy conformed IDC grade 3, ER+/PR+/Hernes. Which of the following is TRUE?
Answer
B. Immediate termination of pregnancy is required
53
Radiological findings of torn thoracic aorta is/are
Answer
D. All of the above
54
Allen's test is useful in evaluating
Answer
C. Integrity of palmar arch
55
The artery commonly involved in cirsoid aneurysm is
Answer
C. Superficial temporal
56
TRIVEX is a percutaneous technique of
Answer
C. Removal of vein by suction following injection of fluid
57
All I of the following true for BRCA-1-related tumors EXCEPT
Answer
A. Occur in older women and have milder diseased course
58
Stemmer's sign is seen in
Answer
A. Lymphedema
59
Necrotizing lymphadenitis is characteristically seen in
Answer
B. Kikuchi disease
60
In thymoma, all are seen except
Answer
B. Hyperalbuminemia
61
False statement about GIST
Answer
D. In GIST with liver secondary chemotherapy is not effective with imatinib control debulking has a role
62
False Statement about lateral anal sphincterotomy
Answer
B. Internal sphincter divided close to the fissure
63
Most common cause for liver abscess
Answer
C. Biliary Tract Pathology
64
Incidence of Laparoscopic port site incisional hernia
Answer
D. 1%
65
Golf Hole Ureter is seen in
Answer
B. Tuberculous cystitis
66
Increased risk of developing pancreatic cancer is seen
Answer
C. Hereditary pancreatitis
67
Reddish blue cyanosis is feature of
Answer
D. Carcinoid syndrome
68
Auto splenectomy seen in
Answer
A. Sickle cell disease
69
Intussusception in older children commonest lead point for ileocecal intussusception
Answer
C. Meckels Diverticulam
70
Common colonic polyp is
Answer
B. Hyperplastic polyp
71
Paraneoplastic syndrome hepatocellular carcinoma EXCEPT
Answer
D. Hyperkalemia
72
False statement about FAP
Answer
A. Always there is family history
73
Wrong statement about paraesophageal hernia
Answer
B. Negative pressure in pleural cavity is an aetiological factor
74
Incidence of developing malignancy in barret esophagus
Answer
A. 0.12%
75
Most common extraintestinal manifestation of crohns disease
Answer
C. Sacroilitis
76
In Whipple operation for Carcinoma pancreas the Distance between biliary and gastric anastomosis should be
Answer
D. 50 cm
77
Ulceration occur in gastrinoma EXCEPT
Answer
D. Ileum
78
Common site for extra nodal lymphoma
Answer
C. Stomach
79
Indication for prophylactic cholecystectomy include all EXCEPT
Answer
A. Asymptomatic multiple gal stones
80
Among the premalignant condition the lowest risk for malignant transformation is
Answer
B. Lichen Planus
81
PSA levels are NOT influenced by
Answer
D. Digital Rectal Examination
82
Horshoe kidneys are prone to all except
Answer
C. Malignancy
83
Biochemical changes associated with urinary diversion can predispose to all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Hyperkalemia
84
Common postoperative complaint after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is
Answer
A. Shoulder tip pain
85
Biobrane can be used in all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Wounds which lack sensation
86
A patient brought with history of trauma is found to have urinary retention, blood at urethral meatus and a high riding prostate on digital rectal examination. What condition would you suspect?
Answer
C. Rupture of membranous urethra
87
Epididymal cyst is suspected clinically in a patient who has a unilateral scrotal enlargement
Answer
C. in which testis can be felt seperately
88
VATS is indicated in the treatment of all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Pneumothorax
89
Benefits of SIL include all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Better clinical outcome
90
Investigation of choice in Crohns disease
Answer
C. MR enterography
91
The Three-Swab test becomes positive in
Answer
C. Vesicovaginal fistula
92
Which is NOT true of stapler haemorrhoidectomy?
Answer
C. Associated with lower recurrence rates
93
"Clam" Enterocystoplasty is NOT used in
Answer
D. Patients with Crohns disease
94
True of Capsule Endoscopy include all EXCEPT
Answer
B. Requires monitoring
95
Which bariatric procedure is preferred in a patient with morbid obesity, with arthritis, requiring NSAID use
Answer
B. Laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy
96
Graft survival after transplantation, expressed interms of "Half Life", is longest in which of the following graft?
Answer
C. Living identical siblings grafts
97
Full thickness resection of the anterior mandible would require immediate reconstruction, most appropriately with
Answer
B. Vascularised Iliac crest graft
98
Most common complication of partial nephrectomy include all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Tumor seeding
99
Which statement is false regarding Peyronie's disease?
Answer
B. Needs to be treated effectively in the acute phase to prevent deformity
100
Regarding ta TME, which is the false statement?
Answer
C. The purse string suture is regularly placed just above the dentate line
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