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Kerala PSC JUNIOR GEOPHYSICIST – Ground Water Previous Question Paper – 134/2025

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Post NameJUNIOR GEOPHYSICIST - Ground Water
Question Paper Code134/2025
Category Code468/2024
Date of Test24 October 2025
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOMR Examination
Total Questions100
1
The ground water contribution to a steam is termed as :
Answer
A. Base flow
2
Land pan is used to measure :
Answer
B. Water evaporation
3
The specific retention :
Answer
B. Increase with decreasing the size
4
The undulating surface at which pore water pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure is known as :
Answer
Question Cancelled
5
In the petroleum industry the β€œDarcy” is used as a unit of :
Answer
C. Intrinsic Permeability
6
The amount of water that can be transmitted horizontally by the full saturated thickness of the aquifer under a hydraulic gradient of β€œ1” is described as :
Answer
A. Transmissivity
7
Fluctuations of water table are caused due to :
Answer
D. All of the above 3 A
8
Water which is formed at the time of consolidation of magma is termed as :
Answer
C. Juvenile water
9
Fine-grained rocks generally have :
Answer
A. High porosity and low permeability
10
A site location map must include scale, orientation, title, and :
Answer
C. Geographic reference
11
To map regional structural features and bedrock fracture patterns in a temperate, heavily vegetated area, which technique is most effective?
Answer
A. Side looking airborne radar imagery
12
The order of decrease in density of clay, sand, sandstone and alluvium is :
Answer
B. sandstone, clay, sand and alluvium
13
The Earth is not a perfect sphere but an oblate spheroid. Which of the following best explains why the equatorial radius of the Earth is greater than the polar radius?
Answer
C. The Earth’s rotation causes centrifugal force, which is maximum at the equator
14
The principle of isostasy is explained differently by Airy and Pratt. Which of the following best represents the distinction between their models?
Answer
A. Airy’s model assumes variations in crustal thickness at constant density, while Pratt's model assumes variations in crustal density at constant thickness
15
Which isotope system is most suitable for dating volcanic ash layers a few million years old?
Answer
B. Potassium βˆ’ Argon (K βˆ’ Ar)
16
Why has Earth’s interior retained its heat over billions of years instead of cooling rapidly like an ordinary solid body of comparable size?
Answer
B. Because long-lived radioactive isotopes within the Earth continue to release heat
17
At which type of plate boundary are both deep-focus earthquakes and volcanic arcs most likely to be found?
Answer
C. Convergent boundary
18
The principle of using geomagnetic reversals to date oceanic crust relies on which of the following processes?
Answer
D. Recording of Earth’s magnetic polarity in basalt as it cools 134/2025 5 A
19
Match the following : Column I Column II
Answer
A. Benioff Zone (1) Point where three plate boundaries meet
20
Which of the following is the most significant driver of seafloor spreading at mid-ocean ridges?
Answer
C. Mantle convection and upwelling of magma
21
The International Gravity Formula accounts for variations in gravity at different latitudes primarily because of :
Answer
B. Centrifugal force due to Earth’s rotation and Earth’s oblateness
22
Solar flares are sudden eruptions of energy on the Sun’s surface. Which of the following is the primary cause of solar flares?
Answer
D. Magnetic reconnection in the Sun’s atmosphere 134/2025 6 A
23
The Mariana Trench, the deepest oceanic trench on Earth, is formed at a convergent plate boundary. Which two of the following statements correctly describe its formation? (i) The Pacific Plate subducts beneath the Mariana Plate. (ii) The Mariana Plate overrides the Pacific Plate due to higher density. (iii) The process creates a deep trench and a volcanic island arc. (iv) The trench forms due to crustal stretching at a divergent boundary. Options :
Answer
A. (i) and (iii)
24
Which of the following statements correctly compare lunar and solar tidal variations? (1) Lunar tides have a larger amplitude than solar tides because the Moon is closer to the Earth despite being less massive. (2) Solar tides have a larger amplitude than lunar tides because the Sun is more massive. (3) Lunar tides have a period of about 12.42 hours, while solar tides have a period of about 24 hours. (4) Solar tides have a stronger influence on tides during spring tides compared to lunar tides. Options :
Answer
C. (1) and (3)
25
The formation of island arcs is closely associated with which of the following geological processes?
Answer
A. Subduction of an oceanic plate beneath another oceanic plate, producing magma that rises to form a curved chain of volcanoes, usually parallel to a deep ocean trench.
26
How does the temperature distribution vary between the Earth’s crust and mantle?
Answer
B. The crust has a steep geothermal gradient, while the mantle shows a nearly adiabatic gradient due to convection.
27
Induced Polarization method is generally used for _____________ sulphide ore bodies.
Answer
B. Disseminated
28
_____________ are examples of geophysical methods that use active sources for investigation; whereas _____________ are natural source methods.
Answer
A. IP & GPR; Telluric & SP
29
The membrane IP effect is most pronounced in the presence of _____________ in which the pores are particularly small.
Answer
C. Clay
30
Mineralisation potential can be attributed to _____________.
Answer
Question Cancelled
31
Which among the following has the lowest dielectric constant?
Answer
A. Air
32
Electrical pseudo-section give an information about _____________.
Answer
C. Both lateral and vertical variation
33
According to Archie’s equation, the electrical resistivity of porous sandstone doesn’t depend on :
Answer
D. Solid matrix
34
The apparent resistivity sounding curve representing the resistivity structure ρ 1 > ρ 2 < ρ 3 < ρ 4 is :
Answer
B. HA-type
35
Which one of the following have greater depth of investigation?
Answer
A. MT
36
Which physical property of the medium governs the response of Ground Penetrating Radar (GPR)?
Answer
C. Dielectric permittivity
37
Mise-
Answer
D. Electrical resistivity
38
In electromagnetic (EM) sounding, the depth of investigation _____________ with increasing frequency.
Answer
B. Decreases
39
Survey using electrical method gives the Apparent Resistivity because of the _____________.
Answer
C. Heterogeneity of ground
40
Which of the following curve is not possible for a 4-layer Earth model with resistivity ρ1 , ρ 2 , ρ 3 and ρ 4 ?
Answer
B. AH
41
Spatially, the global seismic patterns best correlate with :
Answer
B. Plate boundaries
42
Liquefaction in response to strong ground shaking occurs mostly in :
Answer
D. Loose sediments
43
Prime objective of Moment tensors is to learn :
Answer
C. Fault orientation and slip direction
44
Seismic anisotropy in upper mantle is significantly contributed by the processes of :
Answer
D. Lattice preferred orientation of olivine
45
Shallow focus earth quakes in Peninsular India is mainly caused by :
Answer
A. Reactivation of ancient faults
46
The shadow zone and P-waves is related by :
Answer
C. Refraction in outer core
47
The first motion polarity diagram were used to study :
Answer
D. Focal mechanism solution
48
β€˜Beachball’ diagram is a graphic symbol that indicates :
Answer
B. Focal mechanism
49
The most destructive earthquake waves are :
Answer
D. Rayleigh
50
Shear modulus is zero in :
Answer
B. Outer core
51
The signals from Velocity seismometer is proportional to :
Answer
C. Ground velocity
52
STS-2 seismometer is an example of :
Answer
C. Broadband velocity meter
53
The seismographic recording system, primarily used in WWSSN :
Answer
C. Analog optical drum recorders
54
The organization mainly responsible for operation and management of WWSSN :
Answer
A. US Geological Survey
55
Compared to optically pumped magnetometers the major disadvantage of proton precession magnetometers is :
Answer
B. Slower reading rate
56
Lacoste-Romberg gravimeter generates the data of :
Answer
A. Relative gravity
57
The absolute value of gravity at the equator :
Answer
A. 978032 mGal
58
Correction compensates for the Earth’s shape and rotation in gravity surveys?
Answer
B. Latitude correction
59
Optical Pumping magnetometer works on the principle of :
Answer
D. Zeeman effect 134/2025 12 A
60
In the magnetosphere, the region where the pressure from the solar wind becomes equal to the pressure from the planet’s magnetic field is called as :
Answer
A. Magnetopause
61
Which geological feature would most likely cause a positive gravity anomaly?
Answer
D. dense igneous intrusion
62
Which deposit can be explored using gravity survey better?
Answer
B. Chromite
63
Magnetic anomaly is symmetrical and independent of the strike of the body at the latitude of :
Answer
C. 90Β°
64
Euler deconvolution is a geophysical method used for :
Answer
B. Depth estimation of magnetic sources
65
The correct order of the geomagnetic timescale, from oldest to youngest is :
Answer
A. Gilbert, Gauss, Matuyama, and Brunhes
66
At magnetic pole the inclination of total magnetic field is :
Answer
D. 90Β° 134/2025 13 A
67
Eotvos corretion is positive for :
Answer
C. Eastward motion
68
In a region, if the paleo-magnetic inclination is 45Β°, what is the paleo-latitude?
Answer
A. 26.5Β°
69
Radiometric method is suitable for which type of deposit?
Answer
A. Radium
70
Standard unit of gamma radiation is :
Answer
D. Roentgen
71
Which statement is not correct for radiometric surveying for investigation of :
Answer
D. Massive sulfides deposits
72
Geiger-MΓΌller counter, responds primarily to which particles in the proximity of radioactive source?
Answer
C. Beta
73
The scintillometer is used to measure :
Answer
B. Gamma
74
The radioactive carbon method is a simple decay analysis based on equation :
Answer
A. P = Pβ‚€e^(βˆ’Ξ»t)
75
Radon is the products of the 238U decay series with a half-life of :
Answer
A. 3.8 days
76
Radiometric method is used as a secondary geophysical method for :
Answer
A. Hydrocarbon exploration
77
The main objective of a Cement Bond Log is to :
Answer
B. Evaluate the quality of cement behind casing
78
The investigation depth of the LDT (Litho Density Tool) is generally :
Answer
A. A few centimetres into the formation
79
The primary objective of thermal logging in boreholes is to :
Answer
B. Detect fluid movement and heat flow patterns
80
Caliper logs are mainly used to measure :
Answer
A. Measure borehole diameter
81
Irregular bore hole shape or rugosity can strongly affect :
Answer
A. Neutron and density logs
82
The dip angle in dipmeter logging is the angle between :
Answer
B. Bedding plane and borehole axis
83
Dipmeter interpretation is most useful in :
Answer
B. Structural and stratigraphic analysis
84
A sudden drop in gravity values observed in a borehole may suggest :
Answer
B. Presence of a low-density formation such as shale or porous sandstone
85
Disseminated sulfide ores are located by using which logging operations :
Answer
A. Induced Polarisation logging
86
The log, which is used as a detector of mud cake and for measuring mud resistivity :
Answer
B. Micro log
87
The microseismogram log is primarily used to indicate the quality of :
Answer
B. Cementing behind the casing
88
The gamma ray log is particularly useful to estimate :
Answer
B. Shale volume (Vsh)
89
The regions of the electromagnetic spectrum in which the atmosphere is transparent are called :
Answer
C. Atmospheric Windows
90
The width and number of spectral bands in which the image is taken in remote sensing :
Answer
B. Spectral Resolution
91
Which of the statements is true in the case of reflectance : (i) Reflectance is a measure of electromagnetic radiation reflected off a surface (ii) Reflectance is expressed as a number between 0 and 1.0 (iii) Every object on the Earth’s surface has its unique spectral reflectance (iv) In the near Infrared range, the reflectance of clear water is virtually 1
Answer
A. Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are True and (iv) is False
92
Which one of the following is not an Imaging Sensor System :
Answer
B. Infrared Sensing System (ISS)
93
Which is India’s latest satellite in the IRS series, launched in 2025?
Answer
C. NISAR
94
The two widely used spatial interpolation methods in Geographic Information Systems include Inverse Distance Weighting (IDW) and :
Answer
D. Triangulated Irregular Network (TIN)
95
The Kayals of Kerala are treated under which category of the LULC classification of the National Resource Census of NRSC :
Answer
D. Wetlands
96
Which one is not a common software used for Groundwater Modelling :
Answer
A. ESPATIAL
97
The Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) developed by Russia is :
Answer
C. GLONASS
98
Which of the following is a structurally controlled drainage pattern that can be identified from an aerial photograph in hilly areas?
Answer
C. Trellis Pattern
99
The world’s largest natural structure that can be viewed from space or satellites :
Answer
B. Great Barrier Reef, Australia
100
––––––––––– is a more generic term for any digital representation of a topographic surface.
Answer
A. Digital Elevation Model

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