| Post Name | Junior Instructor in Technician Medical Electronics - Industrial Traininig |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 133/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 649/2023 |
| Date of Test | 16 December 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A wire has 'R' ohm resistance, the diameter of wire is halved its resistance will be
Answer
A. 4R
2
At resonance condition, in AC circuit impedance will be
Answer
Question Cancelled
3
Three resistance 30 ohms, 60 ohms and 90 ohms are connected in delta. What will be the resistance for an equvalent star connection
Answer
A. 15 ohm, 10 ohm and 30 ohm
4
Working principle of DC motor is
Answer
A. Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction
5
Which one of the following is a example for paramagnetic material ?
Answer
C. Platinum
6
Relative permittivity of free space is
Answer
A. 1
7
Unit of reluctance is
Answer
C. AT/Weber
8
Which starter is used to start slip ring induction motor
Answer
B. Rotor resistance starter
9
The main purpose of transformer core is to
Answer
D. Decreases the reluctance of magnetic ļ¬ux path
10
Fusing factor of HRC fuse is
Answer
B. 1.1
11
For inductive loads which type of MCB's are used
Answer
C. 'G' series
12
Minimum distance between an earthing electrode and the building is
Answer
B. 1.5 m
13
The eļ¬ciency of transformer is maximum when
Answer
D. It's variable loss is equal to the ļ¬xed loss
14
A repulsion motor is equipped with
Answer
B. Commutator
15
In DC machines interpoles are provided to
Answer
D. Smooth commutation
16
Which type resistor is used where low resistance value and high power rating is required ?
Answer
C. Wire wound resistor
17
The capacitance of a capacitor which can store one coulomb of charge on each conductor causes a voltage of one volt across the device is
Answer
A. 1 Farad
18
Which of the following statement is true in case of pure inductive circuit ?
Answer
C. Current lags the voltage by 90Ā°
19
Choose the correct statement about resonant circuit
Answer
B. The bandwidth decreases with Q factor
20
An intrinsic semiconductor act as _________ in absolute zero temperature
Answer
D. Insulator
21
What type of breakdown occurs in semiconductor junction who is heavily doped and has a narrow depletion layer ?
Answer
B. Zener breakdown
22
Which of the following is the highest current in Bi-polar junction transistor ?
Answer
A. Ie
23
___________ electronic component is used to trigger TRIAC.
Answer
B. DIAC
24
______________ type MOSFET is equivalent to a "Normally Open" switch.
Answer
A. The enhancement mode MOSFET
25
Which of the following statement is correct ?
Answer
C. An SCR has 4 PNPN layers and 3 leads
26
Which of the following components can be used in clipper circuits ? i) Diode ii) Zener diode iii) Transistor
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
27
A ļ¬lter that provides a constant output till the cutoļ¬ frequency and then passes no signal is called
Answer
C. Low-pass ļ¬lter
28
What is the transformer utilization factor of Centre Tap full wave rectiļ¬er ?
Answer
B. 0.692
29
Which of the following statement is/are correct about a common collector conļ¬guration ? i) It provides very high output impedance. ii) The voltage gain of the common collector conbļ¬guration is always less than unity. iii) A 180Ā° phase shift is created between the input and output waveforms.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
30
Which of the following statements describe the requirements of a transistor biasing circuit ? i) The biasing circuit should set the operating point in the saturation region. ii) The biasing circuit should stabilize the collector current against temperature variations. iii) The biasing circuit should make the operating point independent of transistor parameters.
Answer
C. Only (ii and iii)
31
Which of the following statements is/are correct about a direct-coupled ampliļ¬er ? i) It is suitable for amplifying DC. ii) It is suitable for amplifying very high-frequency signals iii) It oļ¬ers good temperature stability.
Answer
A. Only (i)
32
In a single-stage common-emitter transistor ampliļ¬er, the DC supply voltage (Vcc) is 12V, and the collector resistor ( ) is 2kĪ©. The transistor has a DC current gain (Ī²) of 100. If the base current ( ) is 20 Ī¼A. What is the collector- emitter voltage ( )?
Answer
C. 8 V
33
Which of the following statements is/are advantages of negative feedback ? i) Gain stability ii) Increased input impedance iii) Reduced Nonlinear Distortion
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
34
Which of the following statements is/are correct about a Wien Bridge Oscillator ? i) It is a very high frequency oscillator circuit. ii) The frequency of oscillation can be easily varied by varying capacitance value in the bridge. iii) It oļ¬ers good frequency stability compared to a crystal oscillator.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
35
Which of the following statements is/are correct about IC 555 ? i) When the threshold pin voltage increases above 2/3 of Vcc, the output becomes logic LOW. ii) When the trigger pin voltage falls below 1/3 of Vcc, the output becomes logic HIGH. iii) After triggering the output stays logic HIGH even if the trigger pin voltage goes above 1/3 of Vcc.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
36
Which of the following is true for the 555 timer in a monostable conļ¬guration ? i) The output stays high until triggered, and then goes low immediately after the triggering. ii) The output pulse width is determined by the external RC networks connected to the IC 555. iii) The output pulse width is determined by the input signal frequency.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
37
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the CMRR of an operational ampliļ¬er ? i) CMRR is the ability of operational ampliļ¬er to reject noise. ii) CMRR is the ratio of common mode voltage gain to the diļ¬erential voltage gain. iii)The least value of CMRR is most desirable.
Answer
A. Only (i)
38
Which of the following is/are uses of ļ¬ux in soldering ? i) To increase the melting point of solder. ii) To improve the mechanical strength of the joint. iii) To remove oxidation from the metal surfaces.
Answer
C. Only (iii)
39
Which of the following statements is/are correct about wave soldering ? i) Wave soldering is best suited for mixed-technology circuit boards. ii) Wave soldering has more precise temperature control than reļ¬ow soldering. iii) Wave soldering uses infrared lamps or hot air for heat generation.
Answer
A. Only (i)
40
Which of the following statements is/are advantages of Surface Mount Technology ? i) Higher component density ii) Easy automated assembly. iii) Better mechanical performance under shock and vibration.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
41
Decimal number 0.125 may be written in binary system as i) .001 ii) 0.0101 iii) 0.1101
Answer
A. Only (i)
42
ASCII code is i) A 6-bit code ii) A 4-bit code iii) A 7-bit code
Answer
C. Only (iii)
43
A '0'sign bit indicates i) Negative number ii) Positive number iii) Positive or zero
Answer
C. Only (ii and iii)
44
Binary equivalent of gray code number 0100 is i) 0010 ii) 0111 iii) 1010
Answer
B. Only (ii)
45
Which gate has the output low only when both inputs are high ? i) AND ii) OR iii) NAND
Answer
D. Only (iii)
46
Which of the following is not a sequential logic circuit ? i) Flip-Flop ii) Multiplexer iii) Counter
Answer
B. Only (ii)
47
A ļ¬ip-ļ¬op can store i) 3 bits of data ii) 2 bits of data iii) 4 bits of data iv) A single bit of data
Answer
A. Only (iv)
48
A shift register can be used for i) Parallel to serial conversion only. ii) Serial to parallel conversion only. iii) Digital time delay only.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
49
ROM consists of i) A decoder followed by an encoder. ii) A encoder followed by a decoder. iii) None of the above
Answer
C. Only (i)
50
How is data erased in an EPROM ? i) By applying electrical charge. ii) By heating the chip. iii) By exposing to UV light.
Answer
D. Only (iii)
51
Which of the following materials are commonly used to make thermistors ?
Answer
C. Ceramic and metal oxides
52
The materials used in a Type T thermocouple is
Answer
B. Copper and Constantan
53
Which of the following characteristic is preferred for strain gauge materials ?
Answer
A. High resistivity
54
In a PMMC Instrument, the accuracy of the meter can be aļ¬ected by temperature changes. Which of the following components is most aļ¬ected to temperature leading errors ?
Answer
D. The resistance of the moving coil
55
If a PMMC ammeter with a resistance of 1 ohm and full scale current of 1 A is modiļ¬ed to measure currents upto 10 A, the required shunt resistance is
Answer
A. 0.1 ohm
56
The characteristic of a Permanent Magnet Moving Iron Instrument is
Answer
Question Cancelled
57
The modulation technique most commonly used for transmitting digital data in satellite telemetry is
Answer
B. Binary Phase Shift Keying
58
A DSO has a bandwidth of 200 MHz. What is the highest frequency it can measure accurately ?
Answer
C. 200 MHz
59
In a CRO the horizontal ampliļ¬er is designed for
Answer
B. High amplitude signals with a slow rise time
60
Telephone companies make use of the Wheatstone bridge for
Answer
C. Locating the cable faults
61
In a perfectly polarizable electrode
Answer
A. There is no charge transfer between the electrode-electrolyte boundary and the electrode behaves like a capacitor
62
While using sphygmomanometer and stethoscope for measuring BP, the pressure cuļ¬ on the upper arm is ļ¬rst inļ¬ated to a pressure
Answer
C. Well above the systolic pressure
63
In a compound light microscope
Answer
A. Objective lens forms the real image and eyepiece forms the virtual image
64
Lawn waveform is an
Answer
A. Underdamped waveform produced by dc deļ¬brillator
65
When a person goes into deep sleep, the EEG signal becomes
Answer
B. Low frequency with high amplitude
66
Amplitude of noninvasive surface EMG
Answer
A. 0.005-2.0 mV
67
X ray imaging technology incorporates Bucky diaphragm A) It can reduce scatter radiation. B) It is placed between the patient and the X ray ļ¬lm.
Answer
D. Both A and B are correct
68
Choose the correct option(s) A) Low frequency ultrasound will scatter more than high frequency ultrasound B) High frequency ultrasound will give better resolution than low frequency ultrasound
Answer
B. Only (B) is correct
69
Standard which deļ¬ned the requirements for the nature and frequency of routine electrical testing of medical equipment ?
Answer
D. IEC 62353
70
Full form of FMEA
Answer
C. Failure Mode and Eļ¬ects Analysis
71
Electromagnetic interference on pacemakers may occur due to the presence of A) Electrosurgical Unit B) Deļ¬brillator C)Theft Prevention security system D) Audiometer
Answer
A. (A), (B) and (C) are correct
72
Consider the following statements (A) Incubator has better regulation of temperature than an infant warmer. (B) Incubator is less convenient for accessing the infant than infant warmer.
Answer
C. Both (A) and (B) are correct
73
In a measurement using colorimeter, if the path length is doubled and the concentration of the solution is halved, the absorbance will become
Answer
C. No change
74
Centrifuges are used for separating materials based on
Answer
B. Density
75
Choose the correct answer. In spactrophotometry A) Diļ¬raction grating can be used as a monochromator to transmit narrow band of wavelength of light. B) Prison can be used as a monochromator to transmit narrow band of wavelength of light
Answer
A. Both (A) and (B) are true
76
Ultrasound echoes are plotted on a graph in which horizontal axis represents the depth into the patient and the vertical axis represents the amplitude of the return echo. Which method of display is it
Answer
C. A-mode
77
High speed refrigerated centrifuge often maintains a temperature of
Answer
A. 4Ā°C
78
Anode supply voltage of shortwave diathermy
Answer
C. 4000 V
79
Choose the correct answer by comparing diagnostic and therapeutic X-ray machines
Answer
A. Therapeutic X-ray employs higher kV and longer exposure time than diagnostic X-ray
80
Which of the following devices uses aerosol for delivering medication ?
Answer
D. Nebulizer
81
In 8085, how many bit program counter is available ?
Answer
C. 16 Bit
82
The address bus is ______ bit wide in 8086 microprocessor ?
Answer
B. 20 bit
83
The 8086 fetches instruction one after another from ______ of memory.
Answer
B. Code Segment
84
The 8086 operates in _______ mode if MN/MX is low.
Answer
A. Maximum
85
What is the content of accumulator 8085 microprocessor after the execution of XRI F0 H instruction ?
Answer
D. Complement the upper 4 bits of accumulator in 8085
86
For a power-on reset circuit of 8051, the capacitor should be of _______ ?
Answer
B. 0.01 Ī¼F
87
The number of pins for a 8051 in DIP is ?
Answer
D. 40
88
How many SFRs are there in 8051 ?
Answer
A. 21
89
What would be the content of the accumulator after execution of the instruction, MOV A, SP just after system reset ?
Answer
A. 07H
90
The external interrupts of 8051 microcontroller are
Answer
C. INT0 AND INT1
91
Which electrolyte is used in Carbon-Zinc dry cell ?
Answer
B. Ammonium Chloride
92
When 6-cells of 1.5 V each are connected in parallel across a load, the output voltage would be
Answer
A. 1.5 V
93
Which of the following statement is not correct about Lead-acid battery ?
Answer
C. During charging, Carbon Monoxide gas is liberated
94
Which component diļ¬erentiate Oļ¬ine UPS from Online UPS ?
Answer
B. Transfer Switch
95
The time duration for a UPS having Battery capacity 12V, 80 Ah which is connected to a load of 200 watts is
Answer
D. 4.8 Hrs
96
A typical glass Optical ļ¬ber is about ________________ in diameter
Answer
D. 250-500 Ī¼m
97
___________ ļ¬bers are ideally suited for high bandwidth very long-haul using laser sources
Answer
C. Single mode
98
In Optical ļ¬ber communication LED source can be modulated upto a frequency of
Answer
A. 100 MHZ
99
The number of signals transition per second is called ___________ which is characteristics of communication system
Answer
B. Baud rate
100
The dispersion is produced by the properties of the
Answer
D. Both (A and B)
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