| Post Name | JUNIOR INSTRUCTOR (INSTRUMENT MECHANIC) - Industrial Training |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 177/2024 |
| Category Code | 662/2023 |
| Date of Test | 13 December 2024 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Difference between the maximum and minimum limits of size is called :
Answer
C. Tolerance
2
The working surface of the dedendum is called :
Answer
A. Flank
3
What is the least count of Micrometer?
Answer
A. 0.01 mm
4
Which of the following is generally used to calibrate slip gauges?
Answer
D. Interferometer
5
What type of flux is suitable for soldering?
Answer
D. Rosin
6
A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is called :
Answer
C. A voltmeter
7
The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of :
Answer
A. Ampere hour rating
8
Which of the following is a ferromagnetic material?
Answer
A. Nickel
9
What is the purpose of a latching relay?
Answer
C. To hold a circuit in a specific state
10
Three resistors of 2 ohms, 3 ohms and 5 ohms are connected in series. What is the
potential difference across the 3 ohm resistor if the total voltage is 10 V?
Answer
B. 3V
11
The dynamic characteristic of measurement system is :
Answer
D. All of the above
12
The time required by a measurement system to begin to respond to a change in the
measurement is called :
Answer
A. Dead time
13
The ionization gauge an instrument used for the measurement of :
Answer
A. Very low pressure
14
An example of inverse transducer is :
Answer
D. Piezo electric crystal
15
The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of :
Answer
C. Mutual inductance
16
Seismic transducer is used for measurement of :
Answer
C. Acceleration
17
The rotation speed of a shaft can be measured using :
Answer
D. All of the above
177/2024 4 A
18
Pitot-static tube measures :
Answer
D. Difference between total and static pressure
19
Standard range of pneumatic signal for transmission is :
Answer
B. 3 to 15 PSI
20
Capacitive transducer used for :
Answer
D. All of the above
21
What is the RMS value of a sinusoidal AC voltage with a peak value of 100 V?
Answer
Question Cancelled
22
The effective value of an alternating current is also known as :
Answer
B. RMS value
23
Which of the following is true for AC electricity?
Answer
B. It changes direction periodically
24
If the frequency of an AV waveform is 50 Hz, what is its time period?
Answer
A. 0.02 seconds
25
The time period of a waveform is the :
Answer
B. Time taken for one complete cycle
26
The RMS value of a sinusoidal AC current with a peak value of 10 A is :
Answer
B. 7.07 A
27
For a purely sinusoidal waveform, the RMS value is related to its peak value by :
Answer
B. RMS = 0.707 × Peak
28
In an RLC series circuit, the impedance is minimum at :
Answer
A. Resonance
29
The phasor representation of AC quantities is used to represent :
Answer
B. Magnitude and phase
30
The peak value of an AC waveform is 100 V. The RMS value is approximately :
Answer
A. 70.7 V
31
Which of the following statements are correct in an open circuit test of a transformer?
(i) Rated voltage is applied to the high voltage winding
(ii) Rated voltage is applied to the low voltage winding
(iii) High voltage winding is kept open circuited
(iv) A watt meter, volt meter and ammeter are connected in high voltage winding
Answer
D. Option (ii) and (iii) are correct
32
A 100 KVA transformer has a full load loss of 2 kW, the losses being equally divided
between iron and copper losses. During a day, the transformer operates on full load for
3 hours, one half load for 4 hours, the output being negligible for the remaining day time.
Assume the load is lighting load (Unity power factor load). Calculate the all-day
efficiency :
Answer
A. 94.7%
33
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct for short circuit test of a transformer?
(i) Can be used to determine the R 0, X 0, I 0 of the transformer
(ii) SC test alone is required to predetermine the voltage regulation of transformer
(iii) Can be used to determine the R 01 or R 02 and Z 01 or Z 02
(iv) Full load copper loss can be determined
Answer
B. Option (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
34
If K is the transformation ratio of the transformer, X1 is the primary winding leakage
reactance and X2 is the secondary winding leakage reactance, what is the total leakage
reactance of the transformer referred to secondary?
Answer
C. K 2 X1 + X 2
35
K-factor of a transformer is the measure of :
Answer
A. Ability of a transformer to handle non-linear loads
36
A 11 kV/230 V, 150 kVA, single phase 50 Hz transformer has a core loss of 1.62 kW and
half load copper loss of 0.5 kW, Determine the kVA load for maximum efficiency?
Answer
A. 135 kVA
37
Parallel operation of two or more single phase transformer which of the following
conditions must be satisfied?
(i) The voltage ratings of both the primary and secondary should be identical
(ii) The percentage impedances should be equal in magnitude
(iii) With transformers having different kVA rating, the equivalent impedances should
be directly proportional to the individual kVA rating to avoid circulating current
(iv) With transformers having different kVA rating, the equivalent impedances should
be inversely proportional to the individual kVA rating to avoid circulating current
Answer
D. Option (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
A 7 177/2024
38
The relative polarity of the primary and secondary at any instant must be known
___________.
Answer
A. To operates the transformer in parallel connection
39
Which of the following statement is correct about the phasing out test on three phase
transformer?
(i) The phasing out test on three phase transformer is conducted at the same supply
voltage and frequency.
(ii) This test is conducted to find the rated output voltage of the transformer.
(iii) A small direct current is circulated in the primary winding with making and
breaking arrangement.
(iv) This test cannot be possible with three phase transformer with inner connected
star.
Answer
B. Option (iii) and (iv) are correct
40
Which of the following are the causes of third harmonics in a transformer?
(i) Balanced connected load in the transformer
(ii) High saturation of transformer core
(iii) The
Answer
C. Option (ii) and (iii) only correct
41
A tunnel diode is :
Answer
Question Cancelled
42
The working of SMPS is based on :
Answer
D. Chopper control principle
43
The ripple factor of a bridge rectifier is :
Answer
A. 0.482
44
In a Zener diode shunt voltage regulator the diode regulates so long as it is kept in
__________ condition.
Answer
B. reverse
45
When emitter bypass capacitor in common-emitter amplifier is removed, its ________
considerably reduced.
Answer
D. voltage gain
46
Heartily oscillator uses :
Answer
B. inductive feedback
47
An op-amp possess :
Answer
B. very large input resistance and very small output resistances
48
Closed loop gain of a feedback amplifier is the gain obtained when :
Answer
C. feedback loop is closed
49
MOSFET is
Answer
A. voltage controlled device
50
In which configuration (s) voltage gain of transistor amplifier is lowest __________.
Answer
C. common collector
51
How many status flag are there in a flag register of 8085 microprocessor?
Answer
Question Cancelled
52
INTEL 8085 is a ___________ bit microprocessor.
Answer
B. 8
53
How many select lines are required for 8 : 1 multiplexer?
Answer
C. 3
54
Which part of the CRT contains cathode?
Answer
B. Electron Gun
55
What is the full form of IIL in logic family?
Answer
B. Integrated injection circuit
56
The logic equation of an EX-NOR having A and B as input is
Answer
C. A ′B ′ + AB
57
A flip flop can store
Answer
A. One bit of data
58
Which of the following is not an analog-to-digital convertor?
Answer
D. R-2R Ladder
59
Recording on CD is done by using :
Answer
B. Optical method
60
The LCD digital display that is based on :
Answer
B. Reflection of light
61
Which of the statements is correct regarding the Reynolds number?
Answer
C. Increases with an increase in the density of a flowing liquid
62
Choose the correct formula for calculating the flow rate Q through a V-notch weir:
Answer
A. Q = (8/15)C_d tan(θ/2)√(2g)H⁵ᐟ²
63
Rotating vane flowmeters are most suitable for measuring flow in which of the following
industries?
Answer
Question Cancelled
64
Identify the flowmeter that is not classified as an inferential type :
Answer
A. Coriolis flowmeters
65
Match the following :
P. Variable head flow meters W. Swirl meter
Q. Variable area flow meters X. Flow nozzle
R. Vortex flow meters Y. Lobed impeller meter
S. Positive displacement meters Z. Rotameter
Answer
B. P – X, Q – Z, R – W, S – Y
66
Identify the odd one out among the following level measurement systems :
Answer
A. Float based system
67
Mercury U-tube manometers are best suited for measuring :
Answer
A. small changes in liquid level
68
An air purge system is typically used for measuring the level of :
Answer
B. Corrosive liquids
69
Which of the following statements is true regarding the hydrostatic pressure method for
measuring liquid level in a closed tank?
Answer
C. The measured level is proportional to the height of the liquid column above
the measurement point.
70
Contaminant buildup primarily affects the performance of a capacitance level indicator
by altering the :
Answer
C. Dielectric constant between the sensor plates
71
Among the following statement, which is/are correct about A Feed Forward controller?
(i) It can be used when there is a defined source of routine disturbances.
(ii) It can be used when there is a known source of routine disturbances.
(iii) It can be used to minimize the negative effects of the disturbance.
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
72
Among the following statement, which is/are correct about the Rangeability of a control
Valve?
(i) which expresses the ratio between the maximum flow rate through a fully open
valve and the minimum controlled flow through the valve at the same differential
pressure across the valve.
(ii) calculated as the percentage of the valve fully open divided by the percentage open
position of the valve to give minimum controllable flow.
(iii) is independent of Valve Characteristic.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
73
Which of the following statement is/are wrong?
(i) Measured variable is indicated with the letter “r”.
(ii) Controlled variable is indicated with the letter “b”.
(iii) Setpoint is indicated with the letter “c”.
Answer
C. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
74
Reset rate is measured as
Answer
B. Repeats per minute
75
The controller which anticipates error is :
Answer
A. Derivative control
76
Which of the following statement is/are wrong?
(i) Offset error can be eliminated by derivative control
(ii) Offset error can be eliminated by proportional control
(iii) Offset error cannot be eliminated by integral control
Answer
C. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
77
The output of pneumatic controller is
Answer
D. 3-15 psig
78
Which of the following statements are true regarding cascade control?
Answer
B. the set point of one loop is determined by the controller output of another
loop
79
Two position control mode is best adapted to :
Answer
B. Large scale system with Slow process rates
80
Which of the following statements are true regarding flashing?
Answer
A. Valve outlet pressure is less than or equal to the vapour pressure of the
process liquid
81
The temperature at which the celsius scale reading is equal to Fahrenheit :
Answer
D. –40
82
Pyrometer is a technique for measuring temperature ___________ the medium.
Answer
A. Without contacting
83
Which of the following statement is/are true?
(i) J-type thermocouples consist of two wires made of iron and constantan alloy
(ii) J-type thermocouples consist of two wires made of copper and constantan alloy
(iii) J-type thermocouples are suitable for accurate measurements in the range of
–190°C to 760°C
(iv) J-type thermocouples are suitable for accurate measurements in the range of
–190°C to 1260°C.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
84
Which of the following statement is/are true in the case of vapour pressure thermometer?
(i) The boiling point of the liquid must be below the lowest temperature to be
measured.
(ii) The boiling point of the liquid must be above the lowest temperature to be
measured.
(iii) The highest temperature to be measured must be above the critical pressure of
the liquid.
(iv) The highest temperature to be measured must be below the critical pressure of
the liquid.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iv)
85
The ratio of the amount of water vapour present in air/gas and the amount of water
vapour in a saturated mixture at equal volume, temperature and pressure :
Answer
D. Relative humidity
86
A force of 525 N is required to open a process control valve. What is the area of
diaphragm needed for a diaphragm actuator to open the valve with a control gauge
pressure of 75 KPa :
Answer
A. 0.007 m2
87
An equal percentage valve has maximum flow of 50 cm3/s and minimum of 2 cm3/s. If full
travel is 4 cm, find the flow at 2 cm opening :
Answer
C. 10 cm3/s
88
For a Black body radiation, the total emitted radiation energy per second for all
wavelengths increases with the ___________ power of the temperature.
Answer
C. Fourth
89
Which of the following statement is/are true in the case of PLC?
(i) can be programmed using Functional Block Diagram
(ii) can be programmed using Structured text
(iii) can be programmed using Ladder logic
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
90
Which of the following statements are true regarding the HART protocol?
(i) can use Analog devices
(ii) can use Digital devices
(iii) can use devices manufactured by specific vendors
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
91
Which of the following is not true with respect to switch
Answer
A. Switches have to understand the network layer protocol being used to switch
packets, whereas routers do not have to
92
A PWM (Pulse Width Modulation) signal has a frequency of 1 kHz and a duty cycle
of 50%. How much time does the signal remain high in one period?
Answer
C. 0.5 ms
93
In binary FSK-(Frequency Shift Keying)
Answer
A. 4000 Hz
94
Which of the following is true about the maintenance of memory blade cartridges in a
server environment?
Answer
B. They can be hot-swapped in some configurations
95
Which cable category has added shielding for reduced interference and is ideal for
environments with high EMI (Electromagnetic Interference)?
Cable Category Shielding
Answer
A. CAT5e Unshielded (UTP)
96
Which statement is true regarding the scalability of a star topology in a computer
network?
Answer
C. Adding devices only requires connecting them to the central hub
97
In an industrial workstation, why might an HMI (Human Machine Interface) be
configured with multiple layers or screens?
Answer
B. To allow detailed monitoring of different subsystems without cluttering a
single screen
98
In SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition) systems, RTUs (Remote
Transmitting Unit) often operate on a “store and forward” basis. What is the primary
reason for this functionality?
Answer
B. To allow data to be temporarily stored and forwarded to other RTUs if the
network is down
99
When an RTP (Remote Transmission Panel) loses connection with the central SCADA
system, what commonly used feature helps retain critical data for transmission once the
connection is restored?
Answer
D. Local storage
100
Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to ethernet?
(i) In Ethernet networks, the Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection
Answer
C. SMA/CD) mechanism is essential for collision handling in full-duplex switched
networks.
(ii) IEEE 802.1Q is a standard that allows Ethernet frames to carry VLAN
identification information by adding a 32-bit header within the Ethernet frame.
(iii) In Ethernet, the term “back pressure” refers to a flow control method used in
full-duplex networks to prevent buffer overflow by forcing the sender to pause.
(iv) ARP
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