| Post Name | JUNIOR INSTRUCTOR (MECHANIC CONSUMER ELECTRONIC APPLIANCES) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 010/2025 |
| Category Code | 670/2023 |
| Date of Test | 24 January 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
What is the third step of the sequence order of PASS in fire extinguisher?
Answer
A. Squeeze
2
Which one is filled in halon fire extinguisher?
Answer
D. Bromochlorodifluoromethane and carbon tetrachloride
3
How much current is limited to in a neon tester?
Answer
C. 300 microampere
4
What is the equation for producing torque in a coil of PMMC instrument?
Answer
B. T = BLINr newton-metres
5
How many electrons flow in one second in an ampere?
Answer
D. 6.24 Γ 1018 electrons flow per second
6
What is the emf of fully charged nickel iron cell?
Answer
A. 1.4 V
7
What is the electrochemical equivalent of Nickel?
Answer
C. 0.304 mg/c
8
Which is the name called for the ratio of effective value to average value of half cycle?
Answer
B. form factor
9
Which material is used to make the spring in a spring controlled indicating instrument?
Answer
D. beryllium-copper spiral hair spring
10
How much time is required by 125 Hz AC supply to complete one cycle?
Answer
A. 0.008
11
At what temperature does 60:40 solder start to melt?
Answer
B. 183Β°C
12
What is the value of a resistor with the color band sequence yellow, violet, green and
gold?
Answer
C. 4700 K⦠± 5%
13
A 12V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected across a parallel
combination of 4 Kβ¦, 6 Kβ¦ and 12 Kβ¦ resistors. What is the power developed by the
4 K⦠resistor?
Answer
A. 36 mW
14
The mutual inductance (m) of a coil is 3H. The self-inductances of the coils are 4H and
9H respectively. What is the coefficient of coupling between the coils?
Answer
C. 0.5
15
What is the value of capacitance of a capacitor with a voltage of 3V and a charge of
15C?
Answer
B. 5F
16
What is the band gap energy of silicon?
Answer
C. 1.12 eV
17
A depletion layer in a semiconductor consists of _______
Answer
C. Immobile ions
18
In a center-tapped full-wave rectifier, if Vm is the peak voltage between the centre
tap and one end of the secondary, what is the maximum reverse voltage across the
reverse biased diode?
Answer
D. 2 Vm
19
What is the voltage regulation of an ideal voltage regulator?
Answer
A. 0
20
Which of the following is an example of a negative adjustable voltage regulator?
Answer
D. LM 337
21
The current amplification factor (Ξ±dc) for a common base configuration is defined as
Answer
C. IC/IE
22
The maximum peak-to-peak output voltage swing is achieved when the Q point of a
transistor amplifier is located
Answer
A. at the centre of the load line
23
Crossover distortion typically occurs in which of the following amplifier types?
Answer
D. Class B push-pull amplifier
24
In a common emitter amplifier, the input and output signals are
Answer
B. out of phase
25
Why is an emitter follower circuit widely used in electronic instruments?
Answer
D. Its output impedance is low and input impedance is high
26
If two stages of a cascaded amplifier have decibel gains of 30 and 60, then the overall
gain is
Answer
B. 90
27
In a JFET, the drain current is maximum when VGS is
Answer
A. zero
28
A UJT has RΚΚ = 10 kΞ© and RΚβ = 4 kΞ©. Its intrinsic stand-off ratio is:
Answer
B. 0.6
29
How many alternating layers are present in an IGBT?
Answer
C. 4 layers
30
Which type of transistor is the BPX81?
Answer
B. NPN Phototransistor
31
Full form of SCSI
Answer
C. Small Computer System Interface
32
How do you optimize the hard disk?
Answer
A. Scan disk and defragmenter utilities
33
Which of the following is a commonly used electronic simulation software?
Answer
D. TINA-TI
34
What is the email option to send a copy of the email being sent without others knowing?
Answer
B. Blind Carbon Copy
35
Which property allows multiple line in one cell in Excel?
Answer
B. Wrap text
36
What is ISP?
Answer
A. Internet Service Provider
37
In which category does a laser printer belong?
Answer
B. non-impact
38
In Microsoft word, ctrl+j is used for
Answer
C. justify the text
39
Which key is used with the line tool to draw a straight line in MS paint?
Answer
D. Shift
40
From which location is the first instruction available on boot-up?
Answer
A. ROM BIOS
41
How many 2-input OR gates are required to implement a 4-bit greater than comparator
circuit?
Answer
C. 3
42
Decimal equivalent of octal 115 is
Answer
A. 77
43
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) CMOS logic gates have high fan-out so it drives large numbers of gates
(ii) CMOS logic circuits have highest fan-in so it is able to handle more input gates
(iii) Integrated Injection Logic (IIL) has the least propagation delay
(iv) ECL has a very low noise margin
Answer
Question Cancelled
44
_______ is used in digital circuits for simplifying arithmetic operations, enhancing
error detection and reducing complexity
Answer
B. Excess-3 code
45
How many bits are needed to store one Excess-3 code?
Answer
B. 4 bits
46
How many NAND gates are required to construct a 4:1 MUX by using 4-input NAND
gate?
Answer
B. 7
47
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the decoder IC 7447?
(i) When the RBI pin is low and the BCD input is 0000, the display remains unlit
(ii) When cascading decoders in multi-digit display, RBI is always connected to ground
(iii) RBO of one decoder is often connected to the RBI of the next decoder in the chain
Answer
D. only (i) and (iii)
48
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about an ideal OP-AMP?
(i) Zero input impedance and infinite bandwidth
(ii) Infinite input impedance and infinite bandwidth
(iii) Infinite output impedance and infinite slew rate
(iv) Zero output impedance and zero common-mode gain
Answer
D. only (ii) and (iv)
49
How many OP-AMPs are required to construct an instrumentation amplifier?
Answer
C. 3
50
In the bistable mode, IC 555 acts as
Answer
C. Set Reset Latch
51
Which of the following devices provides better waveform visualization and does not
require anti-aliasing circuits?
Answer
B. Cathode Ray Oscilloscope
52
Which of the following internal components generate waveforms in IC 8038?
Answer
Question Cancelled
53
How many pins are there in an HDMI cable?
Answer
A. 19
54
Which of the following is a primary advantage of using BNC connectors in professional
video equipment?
Answer
C. High frequency signal stability
55
What is the total number of pins in a typical SATA connector used for data?
Answer
C. 7
56
Which of the following IC package types is the smallest in size?
Answer
A. CSP
57
Which of the following IC package types provides the best thermal conduction?
Answer
B. Ball grid array
58
What is the primary cause of Electrostatic Discharge (ESD)?
Answer
C. Accumulation of static charge on a surface
59
What is the purpose of using flux during the soldering process?
Answer
B. To prevent oxidation and improve solder flow
60
What is the primary purpose of reflow soldering?
Answer
B. To heat and melt solder paste for Surface-Mount Devices (SMDs)
61
Which of the following fibers experiences the least attenuation for a given wavelength
of light?
Answer
A. Single-mode fiber
62
In ionospheric propagation, which of the following factors most significantly affects
the critical frequency of the ionosphere?
Answer
A. Solar cycle variations
63
A super-heterodyne receiver with an intermediate frequency of 455 KHz is tuned to a
frequency of 1200KHz. Calculate the image frequency.
Answer
C. 2110 KHz
64
Which of the following is the primary cause of a mismatch in an antenna's impedance
and the transmission line?
Answer
D. The reactance of the antenna
65
In a system using QPSK (Quadrature Phase Shift Keying), how many bits can be
transmitted per symbol?
Answer
B. 2 bits
66
Which video output format is commonly used by DVRs for displaying video on monitors
in a CCTV system?
Answer
Question Cancelled
67
Which of the following registers in the 8051 is used to store the carry bit during
arithmetic operations?
Answer
A. PSW
68
In the 8051 microcontroller, which instruction will cause a change in the
Program Counter (PC) when executed?
Answer
B. JMP
69
Which of the following instructions uses the Program Counter (PC) to address external
memory for data transfer in the 8051 microcontroller?
Answer
B. MOVX
70
What is the result when executing the instruction MOV A, @R0 in the 8051
microcontroller?
Answer
C. The content of the memory location pointed by R0 is moved to the accumulator
71
Which of the following statements about thermocouples is true?
Answer
C. The output voltage is proportional to the temperature difference between the
junctions.
72
The starting torque of a single-phase induction motor is typically
Answer
C. Zero, because the motor cannot start on its own
73
Which of the following statements is true about an LVDT (Linear Variable Differential
Transformer)?
Answer
B. It requires an AC excitation voltage
74
A strain gauge has a gauge factor of 2.0 and a nominal resistance of 120 ο. If the
strain applied to the gauge is 500 Γ 10β6, calculate the change in the resistance of the
strain gauge.
Answer
A. 0.12 ο
75
In a capacitive transducer, if the distance between the plates is halved while the area
remains constant, the capacitance will
Answer
D. Double
76
An inductive displacement transducer measures displacement by
Answer
B. Measuring changes in inductance due to core movement
77
In a thermistor-based circuit, self-heating occurs when
Answer
B. The thermistor generates heat due to high current flow
78
Which of the following mechanisms is primarily responsible for the tripping of an MCB
during short-circuit conditions?
Answer
D. Electromagnetic mechanism due to high current flow
79
The speed-torque characteristic of a single-phase induction motor is typically
non-linear and shows a significant drop in torque as the speed increases. This
characteristic is primarily due to which of the following factors?
Answer
D. The reduced effective magnetic flux as the rotor accelerates, leading to lower
torque
80
A star-delta starter is used for starting a three-phase induction motor primarily to
reduce which of the following?
Answer
C. Starting current and torque
81
The tolerable line frequency range for single phase equipment is
Answer
B. 48.5 Hz to 51.5 Hz
82
The working principle of Constant Voltage Transformer
Answer
A. Ferroresonance
83
Which electrical device is used in UPS to immediately switch main power supply to its
stored backup power?
Answer
D. Static transfer switch
84
Line Interactive UPS are generally available with capacity between
Answer
C. 750 VA and 5 KVA
85
What is the switching frequency of SMPS?
Answer
D. 15KHz to 1MHz
86
The disadvantage of Twisted Nematic LCD display is
Answer
A. Low quality colour reproduction
87
Which of the following is used as backlights in LCD TV?
Answer
B. Fluorescent light
88
DVI cable means
Answer
C. Digital Visual Interface
89
How many bits are used for coding to generate 64 functions in the IR remote control
system?
Answer
C. 6 bits
90
Expansion of LNB
Answer
B. Low noise block down converter
91
What is the advantage of IPS screen technology?
Answer
A. Wide viewing angle
92
Which of the following is the ratio of luminance signal?
Answer
D. Y = 30% Red + 59% Green + 11% Blue
93
Inter carrier frequency used for TV signal transmission is
Answer
C. 5.5 MHz
94
The name for DC to DC converter is ______
Answer
A. Chopper
95
Which of the following is a buck converter IC?
Answer
D. LM 2576
96
Which material is used to make heating element in cooking range?
Answer
B. Nichrome
97
Which type of AC single-phase motor is used in washing machine??
Answer
B. Capacitor start squirrel cage induction motor
98
Which of the following is an impact printer?
Answer
A. Dot matrix printer
99
The technology used in non-impact printers is
Answer
D. Both
100
Which type of AC single-phase motor is used in food mixer?
Answer
C. Universal motor
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