| Post Name | Junior Instructor (Pump Operator Cum Mechanic) (Industrial Training) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 013/2025 |
| Category Code | 660/2023, 013/2025 |
| Date of Test | 28 January 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Hexagonal socket head cap screw?
(i) It is used in countersunk holes.
(ii) It is used in counterbored holes.
(iii) It can be fastened with Ring spanner.
Answer
D. Only (ii)
2
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Castle nut?
(i) It can be locked with split pin.
(ii) Slots are cut on the hexagonal part of the nut.
(iii) Slots are cut on the cylindrical part of the nut.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
3
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Counter sinking operation?
(i) It is an operation of cylindrical enlargement at the end of a drilled hole.
(ii) It is an operation of conical enlargement at the end of a drilled hole.
(iii) It can be used for providing chamfer at the end of holes.
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
4
Which one of the following statement is correct about ABC of First aid?
Answer
A. ABC stands for Airway, Breathing and Circulation
5
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Combination Set?
(i) It is used for measuring angles upto an accuracy of 5 minutes.
(ii) It is used for locating center of round bars.
(iii) It is used for marking 45 degree lines.
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
6
What is the least count of a Vernier caliper having 25 vernier scale divisions coincide
with 24 divisions of the main scale?
Answer
B. 0.02 mm
7
What is the pitch of micrometer screw spindle thread?
Answer
A. 0.5 mm
8
Which one of the following tool is used for locating the center of round bars?
Answer
A. Jenny Caliper
9
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Hand file?
(i) Its edges are parallel throughout its length.
(ii) Its one edge is uncut.
(iii) Its faces are double cut.
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
10
Which one of the following file is used for filing 55 degree corner?
Answer
B. Knife edge file
11
Which one of the following file is called βFish back fileβ?
Answer
C. Crossing file
12
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Mass production?
(i) It reduce cost of product.
(ii) High initial expenditure.
(iii) Spare parts are easily available.
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
013/2025 4 A
13
In limit system, what is the difference between actual size corresponding to its basic
size?
Answer
A. Actual deviation
14
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Twist drill flutes?
(i) It forms the cutting edges.
(ii) It allows coolant flow to the cutting edge.
(iii) It increase the strength of drill bit.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
15
In drilling machine, which one of the following drill holding device is used when the size
of drill taper shank is bigger than the drilling machine spindle taper?
Answer
B. Socket
16
What is the blank size required for cutting M10Γ1.5 external thread?
Answer
Question Cancelled
17
In machining operation, what is the unit of cutting speed?
Answer
A. Meter/minute
18
Which one of the following super finishing operation is used in engine bores?
Answer
B. Horning
19
In screw thread, which one of the following term is used for representing the surface
joining crest and Root?
Answer
D. Flank
20
What is the distance advanced by a screw thread in one complete revolution?
Answer
D. Lead
A 5 013/2025
21
Select the correct statement/s regarding the applicability of Ohmβs Law :
(i) Ohmβs Law applies to non-metallic conductors and semiconductors only.
(ii) Ohmβs Law is valid only for linear resistors.
(iii) Ohmβs Law is valid for all types of electrical circuits, including those with
capacitors and inductors.
(iv) Ohmβs Law applies to all materials, including those with non-linear properties.
Answer
C. Only (ii)
22
Choose the correct statement/s about factors affecting resistance :
(i) Resistance decreases as the temperature of the conductor increases for metals.
(ii) Resistance is the same for all materials under identical conditions.
(iii) Resistance depends only on the length of the conductor.
(iv) Resistance increases with an increase in the resistivity of the material.
Answer
B. Only (iv)
23
Identify the correct statement/s about lead-acid batteries :
(i) The chemical reaction in a lead-acid battery involves the conversion of lead dioxide
and sponge lead into lead sulfate during discharge.
(ii) During charging, lead sulfate is converted back into lead dioxide and sponge lead.
(iii) Lead-acid batteries typically have a shorter lifespan compared to lithium-ion
batteries, especially in deep cycle usage.
(iv) The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery is sulfuric acid diluted with water.
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
013/2025 6 A
24
Select the correct statement/s about the working principle of transformers :
(i) A transformer can increase or decrease the current and voltage based on the ratio
of turns in the primary and secondary coils.
(ii) A transformer works by using the principle of electromagnetic induction to transfer
electrical energy between two circuits.
(iii) In a step-up transformer, the secondary voltage is higher than the primary voltage,
but the secondary current is lower.
(iv) A transformer works only with a pure sinusoidal input current.
Answer
C. Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
25
Identify the correct statement/s about grounding in electrical systems :
(i) Grounding provides a path for electric current to flow safely into the Earth in case
of a fault.
(ii) A ground connection helps to maintain the electrical potential at zero volts for the
system.
(iii) A ground connection is used to prevent electrical surges in a circuit.
(iv) Grounding is used to prevent Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) in AC circuits.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
26
Identify the correct statement/s about an ohmmeter :
(i) An ohmmeter should always be connected to a live circuit to measure resistance.
(ii) The polarity of the connections does not matter when using an ohmmeter to
measure resistance.
(iii) An ohmmeter should be connected across the component or resistor when
measuring its resistance.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
27
Identify the correct statement/s about a Digital Voltmeter
Answer
B. Only (iii) and (iv)
28
Choose the correct statement/s about capacitors in electrical circuits :
(i) Capacitors are used to smooth out voltage fluctuations.
(ii) Capacitors block DC current but allow AC current to pass through.
(iii) Capacitors store energy in the form of electrical fields.
(iv) Capacitors only function in AC circuits and cannot be used in DC circuits.
Answer
C. Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
29
A 1.5 KW electric motor runs for 2 hours at full load. If the efficiency of the motor is 75%,
what is the total energy input (in kWh)?
Answer
C. 4 kWh
30
The range of a one milliampere meter movement is to be extended to 10 milliamperes
and the moving coil has a resistance of 45 ohms. Calculate the required shunt resistance
for extension of the range of an ammeter :
Answer
D. 5 ohms
31
Ratio of active power used to the total power drawn from the system is known as :
Answer
B. Power factor
32
In AWS codification EB5426HJX what does the third digit indicates?
Answer
C. Type of welding position
33
Short arc length produce ββββββββββ sound.
Answer
B. Popping
34
Which type of wire brush is used to clean ferrous metals?
Answer
A. Carbon steel
35
Purpose of normalising the steel is
Answer
D. To produce fine grains of uniform structure
013/2025 8 A
36
Which action to be taken for controlling back fire?
Answer
D. Close oxygen control valve
37
What should be the angle for a double bevel butt joint?
Answer
A. 45Β°
38
Which defect can detect by liquid penetrant test:
Answer
B. Cracks
39
Magnetic particle testing is a destructive testing method used to find:
Answer
Question Cancelled
40
Which heat treatment of steel increases hardness but decrease strength and ductility?
Answer
B. Hardening
41
In air compressor generally a FRL unit is fitted in main supply line of compressed air
system. What is the advantage of using FRL system in air compressor?
(i) Can deliver air at a fixed pressure
(ii) Can deliver cleaned and lubricated air
(iii) Can deliver air after filtering with particles below 20 microns
(iv) Can deliver more moisturised air
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
42
In diesel cycle the fuel is sprayed at high pressure and ignited by hot compressed air. In
this process the heat addition is takes place at :
Answer
D. Constant pressure
43
Diesel engines are working with high compression pressure. Generally what will be the
compression pressure of diesel engines?
Answer
A. 400 to 550 PSI
44
When compared to direct engines indirect engines are difficult to start form cold. Which
of the following cold starting device uses ether in inlet manifold to start the engine?
Answer
C. Chemical sprays
45
The combustion in a diesel engine occurs in different stages. These stages are going
simultaneously in different parts of combustion chamber during injection of fuel. Select
any two correct stages from the below options :
(i) Delay period
(ii) Flash period
(iii) After burning
(iv) Fire period
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
46
Which law state that the pressure intensity of a static liquid is equal in all directions?
Answer
C. Pascals law
47
If n is the number of cylinders, Vβ is piston displacement and S is swept volume, engine capacity Vd is calculated by:
(i) Vd = Vβ Γ n
(ii) Vd = Vβ Γ n
(iii) Vd = ΟrΒ² Γ S Γ n
(iv) Vd = Vβ Γ n
Answer
Question Cancelled
48
In which of the following method the horse power of the engine is measured with all the
accessories like generator, air cleaner, cooling fan etc. fitted on the engine?
Answer
D. D I N rating
49
In a two stroke six cylinder engine the power impulse occurs after β x β degrees of
crankshaft rotation. What will be value of β x β?
Answer
B. 60
50
Oil pressure gauge is equipped with pressure lubricating system to warm the engine
operator. These oil pressure gauge may be of pressure expansion or electric type. Which
of the following involves in electric type oil pressure gauge?
(i) Balancing type
(ii) Bimetal thermal type
(iii) Plunger type
(iv) Static type
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
51
In dry sump lubricating system a tube is connected between delivery pump and oil tank
to collect the oil from sump to oil tank. What is the name of that connected tube?
Answer
B. Pick up tube
52
Where is the location of oil filter is in bypass oil filter lubrication system?
Answer
D. Between main gallery and return line
53
Any mineral oil by itself does not possess all the properties. The oil companies add a
number of additives into the oil during manufacturing process. Which are the following
main additives?
(i) Prussian blue
(ii) Fibre resigns
(iii) Pour point deppresents
(iv) Oxidation inhibitors
Answer
D. Only (iii) and (iv)
54
Which of the following reasons is/are leading engine does not start by electrical causes?
(i) Burn valve guide
(ii) High octane fuel
(iii) Loose battery terminals
(iv) Open field in starter motor
Answer
D. Only (iii) and (iv)
A 11 013/2025
55
Which of the following remedies is/are to be taken when the engine is not starting by
mechanical causes?
(i) Broken valve timing chain
(ii) Poor valve seating
(iii) Broken fan belt
(iv) Vehicle overload
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
56
Which of the following reasons is/are leading engine over heating in an automobile?
(i) Wrong injection timing
(ii) Valve seat pitted
(iii) Chocked fuel hose
(iv) Blocked silencer
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iv)
57
Which of the following remedies is/are to be taken to avoid low power generation in
engines?
(i) Replace oil filter
(ii) Replace starting relay
(iii) Clean clogged exhaust port
(iv) Adjust tappet clearance
Answer
D. Only (iii) and (iv)
58
Which of the following reasons is/are causing low oil pressure in engine lubrication
system?
(i) High oil level
(ii) Low oil viscosity
(iii) Low oil level in sump
(iv) Leakage in combustion gas
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
59
Which of the following reasons is/are causing excessive oil consumption in diesel
engines?
(i) Oil reaches in combustion chamber
(ii) Damaged valve seal
(iii) Clogged air filter
(iv) Excessive carbon deposit
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
60
Which of the following reasons is/are leading engine noise in automobile?
(i) Wornout gudgeon pins
(ii) Weak compression
(iii) Low oil viscosity
(iv) Big end bearing wornout
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iv)
61
Which of the following statement is/are correct about belt drives?
(i) Used for transmission of power from one shaft to another which are at a
considerable distance apart.
(ii) Used when considerable power is to be transmitted over long distances.
Answer
A. Only (i)
62
Which of the following statement is/are correct about velocity ratio of belt drive?
(i) If there is no slip between the belt and driver pulley, then belt velocity will be equal
to the peripheral velocity of driver pulley.
(ii) If there is no slip between the belt and driven pulley, then peripheral velocity of the
driven pulley will be equal to belt velocity.
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
63
Which one of the following belt drive is used with shafts arranged at right angles and
rotating in one definite direction?
Answer
B. Quarter turn belt drive
64
When the belt passes from the slack side to the tight side, a certain portion of the belt
extends and it contracts again when the belt passes from tight side to slack side. Due to
these changes of length, there is a relative motion between the belt and pulley surfaces.
These relative motion is termed as:
Answer
D. Creep of belt
65
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Power transmitted by a belt?
(i) Tension on the tight side will be greater than the slack side.
(ii) The effective driving force at the circumference of the follower is the difference
between the two tensions.
(iii) Power transmitted by the belt drive is equal to the product of difference between
the two tensions and length of belt.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
66
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Ratio of driving tensions for flat
belt drive?
(i) Ratio of driving tension gives the relation between tight side and slack side
tensions in terms of coefficient of friction and angle of contact
(ii) Maximum tension in the belt is the product of maximum stress and cross sectional
area of belt
(iii) The effect of centrifugal force increase the tension on both tight as well as slack
sides
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
67
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Bushed bearings?
(i) It is an improved solid bearing
(ii) The outside of the bush is a driving fit in the hole of the casting
(iii) For shafts transmitting high power the frictional force itself hold the bush in
position
Answer
C. Only (i) and (ii)
68
What is the material of the bush used in bush bearing?
Answer
A. Gun metal
69
Which one of the following is used to hold the bush in position for shafts transmitting
high power?
Answer
C. Grub screws
70
Which of the following is a flexible coupling?
Answer
A. Oldham coupling
71
Which of the following is NOT a good location for centrifugal pump?
Answer
B. Wet place
72
In a submersible pump:
Answer
A. Both motor and pump is submerged in water
73
Which part of a centrifugal pump is a wheel or a disc mounted on the drive shaft and
provided with a number of curved vanes or blades?
Answer
C. Impeller
74
Water hammer pipe is due to:
Answer
B. Sudden change in velocity
75
What are all the components of submersible pump that are suspended in the water?
Answer
D. Both pump and motor
76
Impeller is the components of:
Answer
B. Centrifugal pump
77
The slip of reciprocating pump is expressed as:
Answer
C. The difference between actual discharge and theoretical discharge
78
Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from:
Answer
A. Rotor to fluid
79
In reciprocating pump air vessels are used to:
Answer
D. Smoothen the flow
A 15 013/2025
80
What will be the theoretical discharge of a double acting reciprocating pump? (stroke
length = 250 mm, bore = 150 mm and crank speed = 60 rpm).
Answer
D. 8.8 liters/s
81
What is the primary function of a check valve in a submersible pump system?
Answer
B. To prevent water backflow into the well
82
Which of the following is NOT a key component of a submersible pump?
Answer
D. Foot Valve
83
What is cavitation in a centrifugal pump?
Answer
A. The formation and collapse of vapour bubbles in the pump
84
Which material is commonly used for manufacturing centrifugal pumps due to its high
tensile strength and abrasion resistance?
Answer
B. Cast Iron
85
During the reconditioning of a centrifugal pump, which component is typically inspected
for wear and tear and may require replacement?
Answer
C. Mechanical Seal
86
What type of valve is specifically designed to allow flow in one direction only?
Answer
D. Check Valve
87
Which of the following is an advantage of using PTFE (polytetrafluoroethylene) as a
gasket material for pumps handling corrosive fluids?
Answer
C. High temperature and corrosion resistance
88
What type of pump is particularly well-suited for handling viscous fluids and slurries
with suspended solids?
Answer
B. Progressive Cavity Pump
89
Which of the following is a crucial step in the installation of a submersible pump?
Answer
B. Ensuring the pump is submerged below the water level
90
Which type of gland is commonly used to prevent leakage in pumps handling corrosive
fluids?
Answer
B. Mechanical Seal
91
Which of the following types of ropes has highest strength to weight ratio?
Answer
D. HMPE rope
92
The bowline knot is known as the βking of knotsβ because:
Answer
B. It is easy to tie and untie after being loaded
93
In a pulley block system, the mechanical advantage is determined by:
Answer
B. The number of pulleys supporting the load
94
In which of the following conditions is a Woodruff key least suitable?
Answer
A. Applications involving high-torque loads
95
Which of the following motors is preferred for variable-speed applications?
Answer
D. Three-phase induction motor with VFD
96
ββββββ are keys which are made integral with the shaft and fitted in the keyways
broached in the hub.
Answer
C. Splines
97
The number of poles in a three-phase induction motor operating at a synchronous speed
of 1200 RPM and a supply frequency of 60 Hz is:
Answer
C. 6
98
Power factor is defined as the ratio of:
Answer
A. Active power to apparent power
99
In a no-load test of an induction motor, the measured input power mainly accounts for:
Answer
A. Core loss, windage and frictional losses
100
ββββββ is when an electromechanical energy meter records energy without any
load connected or power is not being used.
Answer
C. Creeping error
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