| Post Name | Junior Manager (Quality Assurance) - Kerala State Civil Supplies Corporation Ltd |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 132/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 346/2021 |
| Date of Test | 1 August 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Salmonella poisoning is commonly found in
Answer
A. Animal foods
2
Diarrhoea starting as watery discharge leading to pus and blood filled output is found in
Answer
B. Bacillary diarrhoea
3
Human infection of Vibrio parahemolyticus occurs solely from
Answer
C. Sea foods
4
Q Fever is caused by
Answer
A. Coxiella burnetti
5
Botulin toxin blocks the pathway of
Answer
B. Acetylcholine
6
Name the first issue addressed by HACCP
Answer
A. Microgravity
7
NACMCF stands for
Answer
D. National Advisory Committee of microbiological Criteria for Foods
8
Final step of HACCP is
Answer
B. Documentation and Record keeping
9
Decision tree method is adopted for
Answer
A. Critical control point
10
HACCP can be built in with
Answer
C. GMP and SSOP
11
A biological, chemical or physical agent of, food with the potentials to cause an adverse health effect is
Answer
B. Hazard
12
_____________ is a criterion which separates acceptability from unacceptability
Answer
B. CL
13
Obtaining evidence that elements of the plan are effective
Answer
D. Validation
14
The method used to examine the behavior of a model by measuring variation in outputs due to changes in inputs
Answer
A. Sensitivity analysis
15
The state wherein correct procedures are met and criteria met in HACCP is referred to as
Answer
B. Control
16
________ continuously updates the Guidelines on Good Laboratory Practice
Answer
A. The Codex Committee on Pesticide Residues
17
The quality Index method-1992 (QIM) is used to ascertain quality of
Answer
C. Fish
18
Triangle test indicates
Answer
A. Whether or not a detectable difference among three samples
19
Pungent smell of spoilt fish is due to
Answer
C. TMA
20
Ware housing involves
Answer
D. Receiving, storage and transportation
21
Statistical process control is a technique used for
Answer
C. Taking action whenever there is a difference between actual quality and the specification
22
Control chart is a
Answer
A. 2 dimensional chart
23
(MPN) technique of analysis refers to
Answer
B. A statistical method of estimating the concentration of bacteria
24
Which of these is not a stage of histological technique
Answer
C. Partitioning
25
__________ tests are designed in such a way that the questions and interpretations are consistent and are administered and scored in a predetermined, standard manner
Answer
A. Standardised
26
Which among the following is/are not correct about Total Quality Management? (i) TQM does not required involvement of all the people in the organisation (ii) TQM directly affects the productivity of the organisation (iii) TQM ensures employee wellbeing and satisfaction
Answer
A. Only (i)
27
The full form of SWAMP is
Answer
D. Safety Without Any Management Process
28
Which among the following is/are correct about Zero Defect? (i) Provide standard of excellence in quality (ii) To care about accuracy and completeness (iii) To improve work habits
Answer
C. All of the above
29
Which of the following is/are not a step in Six Sigma? (i) Identify the product you create or service you provide (ii) Define the process for doing the work (iii) Ensure good delivery system
Answer
C. Only (iii)
30
Which among the following is/are correct regarding Good Manufacturing Practice? (i) GMP is a government requirement (ii) GMP ensures quality product (iii) GMP does not helps in reducing errors
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
31
World Standards Day is on
Answer
B. 14th October
32
Which among the following is not used as a chelating agent?
Answer
B. Carmosine
33
The causative organism of Ergotism is
Answer
A. Claviceps purpurea
34
Which among the following should not be mentioned while labelling a product (i) The name, trade name or description of food (ii) The name of ingredients used in the product (iii) License number and category (iv) Recommendation by medical profession
Answer
B. Only (iv)
35
ISO 22000 stands for
Answer
C. Food Safety Management System
36
Choose the incorrect regulation followed by FSSAI for the registration of a petty business (i) They shall follow the basic hygiene and safety requirements (ii) The premises to conduct food business for manufacturing should have adequate space for manufacturing and storage (iii) The premises shall be clean, adequately lighted and ventilated and sufficient free space for movement (iv) Eating, chewing and its garbage can be done within the premises
Answer
D. Only (iv)
37
Fullform of APEDA is
Answer
A. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority
38
APEDA is functioning under which ministry?
Answer
B. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
39
Which among the following is/are not a function of Marine products Export Development Authority (i) Export production - Capture Fisheries (ii) Induction of New Technology and Modernization of processing Facilities (iii) Market promotion (iv) Continuing education and training guideline
Answer
A. Only (iv)
40
Which among the following is the apex body of all Export Promotion Councils?
Answer
A. FIEO
41
Who is designated as national Codex Contact Point in India?
Answer
D. FSSAI
42
Which among the following is the principles of HACCP? (i) Conduct a hazard analysis (ii) Establish a system to monitor control of CCP (iii) Establish verification procedures (iv) Documentation and record keeping
Answer
D. All of the above
43
Where is Export Inspection Council located?
Answer
C. Delhi
44
Which among the following place does not have Export Inspection Agency?
Answer
B. Bengluru
45
Who implemented Edible oil packaging order?
Answer
A. Department of Food and public Distribution
46
Which among the following does not comes under FSSAI? (i) Food additives (ii) Contaminants in the food chain (iii) Biological hazards (iv) Distribution
Answer
C. Only (iv)
47
What is OIE stands for?
Answer
A. World Organisation for Animal Health
48
Which international organisation deals with the prevention of the spread and introduction of pest of plants?
Answer
B. IPPC
49
Which among the following exchange information on hazards between member states that covers food, food contact materials and animal feed?
Answer
A. RASFF
50
Where is the headquarters of FAO situated?
Answer
B. Rome
51
Which of the following is correct regarding sprinkler irrigation? (i) It is best suited to heavy clayey soil (ii) The recurring cost in sprinkler irrigation system is quite high (iii) Sprinkler irrigation is adaptable to sloping land whether uniform or undulating (iv) It is not suitable for crops such as grapes and apple
Answer
A. Only (iii)
52
Salvinia molesta (African payal) is an alien weed introduced from
Answer
C. Brazil
53
Syama and Sumanjana are two popular varieties of
Answer
D. Black gram (Vigna Mungo)
54
Which of the following statements are correct regarding SRI (System of Rice Intensification) (i) The methodology was developed in philippines in 1980s (ii) It is adopted for upland and lowland rice (iii) Seed rate is 15kg/ha with wide spacing of 25 × 25 cm (iv) Transplanting of young seedlings of 8-12 days old
Answer
B. Only (iv)
55
Which of the following is correct regarding IFFCO Nano urea liquid
Answer
C. The Innovative product was designed in Kalol, Gujarat at IFFCO's Nano Biotechnology Research Center (NBRC)
56
As per seed Act (1966), Seed certification is
Answer
B. Voluntary
57
SRR (Seed Replacement Rate) is directly proportional to the
Answer
A. Productivity of all crops
58
Breeder seed is seed or vegetative propagating material whose production is personally supervised and controlled by a qualified plant breeder who may be the original breeder involved in the breeding programme that helps to develop thevariety or any breed from the sponsoring institution Breeder seed has ________ label that indicates its quality factors like germination, physical purity etc
Answer
C. Golden yellow tag
59
In seed production of okra, minimum isolation distance for certified seed is
Answer
C. 200 m
60
Inability of the viable seed to respond to the favorable environmental conditions i.e., oxygen, water, temperature for germination is called
Answer
A. Dormancy
61
Maximum size of seed lot for maize seed is
Answer
A. 40,000 kg
62
Presence of 'Silver shoot' is the symptom of which rice pest
Answer
C. Gall midge
63
Loose smut is wheat is
Answer
A. Internally seed borne
64
vector of Grape vine yellow mosaic
Answer
C. Xiphenima index
65
Which is the most appropriate storage condition for low infestation of insects
Answer
C. Low oxygen, Low humidity
66
Storage pest that can live without food upto 5-7 years
Answer
C. Khapra beetle
67
Early maturing sweet potato (Ipomoea batatas) variety, used as a trap crop for nematodes
Answer
A. Sree Bhadra
68
Which of the following chemical is used for the preservation of coloured grapes and plum juices
Answer
A. Sodium Benzoate
69
CFTRI method of coconut processing is also known as
Answer
A. Krauss-Maffei process
70
A postharvest spray in potato to control sprouting
Answer
C. Maleic Hydrazide
71
Minimum TSS content in squash
Answer
C. 40%
72
Aromatic compound in ripe apple is
Answer
A. Ethyl 2-methylbutyrate
73
Central nodal agency for undertaking price support operations for pulses and oilseed and market intervention operations for other agricultural commodities
Answer
A. NAFED
74
_________ won the platinum award at digital Empowerment of citizens category in digital India Award 2022
Answer
C. e-NAM
75
The portion of total produce in stock which the farmer is willing to sell
Answer
B. Marketable surplus
76
When total utility is maximum, the marginal utility is
Answer
B. Zero
77
In general, the demand of agricultural produce is
Answer
B. Inelastic
78
The current chairman of CACP (Commission for agricultural costs and prices)
Answer
A. Vijay Paul Sharma
79
The carbohydrate form in Guar gum is
Answer
A. Galactomannans
80
Which one of the following is not true
Answer
D. Ribose is ketopentose
81
Coconut oil is a rich source of which saturated fatty acid
Answer
C. Lauric acid
82
Prostaglandins belong to the subclass of lipids and are synthesised in vivo from
Answer
A. Arachidonic acid
83
Which of the following statements is not correct?
Answer
B. Ergocanciferol is the common form of vitamin D
84
Ochratoxin, a mycotoxin that has carcinogenic properties is produced by
Answer
C. Aspergillus
85
Which of the following statement is/are correct (i) Beer is an alcoholic product prepared by bottom yeast (ii) Ale is produced by top yeast (iii) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is an example of top yeast
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
86
Father of canning process
Answer
A. Nicholas Appert
87
Commonly used ionizing radiation for food preservation is
Answer
C. Gamma radiation
88
Instant fruit juice powders are prepared by
Answer
B. Spray drier
89
Water activity (aw) in dried fruits is
Answer
C. 0.60-0.65
90
A non-thermal food processing technology is
Answer
D. High pressure processing
91
Which is not a milk product?
Answer
Question Cancelled
92
Which of the following is not a fish poison/toxin
Answer
D. Solanine
93
Fresh meat quality is assessed in terms of (i) Appearance Quality Traits (AQT) (ii) Eating Quality Traits (EQT) (iii) Reliance Quality Traits
Answer
A. All of the above (i, ii, iii)
94
Which of the following is not an antinutritional factor in rice bran
Answer
C. Albumin
95
____________ is a millet
Answer
Question Cancelled
96
Tenderization of meat is done by (i) Aging (ii) Papain (iii) Ultra sonic waves (iv) Needling
Answer
C. All of the above (i, ii, iii and iv)
97
Formaldehyde or urea is used as an adulterant in
Answer
B. Milk
98
The ISO standard for food safety management system is
Answer
C. ISO 22000
99
Which is not the principle of HACCP
Answer
A. FSSAI
100
Methods of Non-destructive food quality analysis (i) NIR spectroscopy (ii) Titrimetric method (iii) Nuclear Magnetic resonance (iv) Thermal Imaging
Answer
B. Only (i, iii and iv)
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