| Post Name | Junior Petrological Analyst |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala Minerals and Metals Limited (MS Unit) |
| Question Paper Code | 120/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 458/2025 |
| Date of Test | 11 June 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which branch of Earth Science focuses on the origin, composition, texture, classiļ¬cation, and processes of formation of rocks?
Answer
C. Petrology
2
The period of Earthās history characterized by intense meteorite bombardment, widespread volcanism, and the absence of conļ¬rmed life is known as the:
Answer
B. Hadean Eon
3
Which extinct freshwater reptile provided important fossil evidence supporting the theory of continental drift because its fossils are found in both South America and Africa?
Answer
C. Mesosaurus
4
What is the point within the Earth where the rupture of rocks begins and seismic energy is ļ¬rst released during an earthquake?
Answer
C. Focus
5
Which type of basaltic lava is characterized by a rough, jagged, clinkery surface formed as relatively viscous lava cools and breaks during ļ¬ow?
Answer
C. Aa lava
6
Which weathering process occurs when water enters cracks in rocks, freezes, expands, and gradually breaks the rock apart?
Answer
A. Frost wedging
7
What geotechnical phenomenon is primarily responsible for the inclination of the Leaning Tower of Pisa?
Answer
B. Diļ¬erential subsidence
8
Which is the largest ļ¬uvial delta in the world?
Answer
D. Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta
9
What is a moraine?
Answer
B. A ridge or accumulation of unsorted debris deposited by a glacier
10
Which type of sand dune is crescent-shaped and forms under conditions of limited sand supply and a prevailing unidirectional wind?
Answer
C. Barchan dune
11
According to the law of constancy of interfacial angles, the angle between corresponding faces of crystals of the same mineral is:
Answer
B. Constant regardless of crystal habit
12
Which one of the following minerals belongs to the framework silicate group?
Answer
C. Quartz
13
The Mohs hardness of orthoclase feldspar is:
Answer
C. 6
14
Which optical accessory is commonly used to determine the optic sign of a mineral under a polarizing microscope?
Answer
B. Quartz wedge
15
Which crystallographic system is characterized by three unequal axes intersecting at right angles?
Answer
B. Orthorhombic
16
The phenomenon in which one mineral is replaced by another while retaining the original external crystal form is called:
Answer
C. Pseudomorphism
17
Pleochroism in minerals is caused by:
Answer
B. Diļ¬erential absorption of light in diļ¬erent directions
18
Which of the following minerals is isotropic under crossed nicols?
Answer
C. Garnet
19
The Miller indices for a plane cutting the crystallographic axes at 2a, 3b and Ā„ c are:
Answer
D. (320)
20
In a Nicol prism, ordinary light is eliminated because:
Answer
A. lt is reļ¬ected totally at the Canada balsam interface
21
What is the typical protolith of eclogite?
Answer
C. Basalt
22
Which rock is described as a highly sodic basalt with albite or oligoclase as the sole or principal feldspar?
Answer
B. Spilite
23
Most Laccoliths are composed mainly of:
Answer
C. Acid rocks
24
When a magma has started to crystallize and the crystals belong to a reaction series, the liquid is eļ¬ectively supersaturated with:
Answer
A. Any preceding member of the same reaction series
25
All peritectic systems exhibit:
Answer
B. Incongruent melting
26
Why are zoned olivines rare in igneous rocks?
Answer
B. Olivine easily equilibrates with the melt by Fe-Mg exchange
27
Which of the following is the lowest-temperature facies of contact metamorphism?
Answer
A. Albite-epidote-hornfels
28
Diastathermal metamorphism refers to:
Answer
D. Burial metamorphism in extensional tectonic settings with enhanced heat ļ¬ow
29
In porphyroblasts having a helicitic structure, the strings of inclusions are:
Answer
B. Relict structures inherited from a pre-existing sedimentary or metamorphic fabric
30
Anorthosites are:
Answer
D. Plutonic rocks with over 90% plagioclase
31
A sandstone dominantly composed of volcanic lithic fragment and plagioclase feldspar with very rare quartz. The sandstone is likely to be from
Answer
D. magmatic arc provenance
32
Geochemical analysis of a sandstone is as follows: SiO2 = 67.8%, Al2O3 = 15.4%, TiO2 = 0.95%, Fe2O3(t) = 6.46%, K2O = 2.74%, Na2O = 1.07%. The sandstone is a
Answer
D. Lithic arenite/wacke
33
A prograding delta succession will be of
Answer
C. thickening- and coarsening-upward stacking pattern
34
Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
B. In greywacke sandstones sodium (Na) > potassium (K)
35
(a) Current crescent (i) Intrabed structure (b) Convolute lamination (ii) Interbed structure (c) Flute mark (iii) Bedding plane structure (d) Load mark (iv) Sole structure The correct match of above columns is
Answer
C. (a)-(iii), (b-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
36
Cement in carbonate rocks is formed at (i) pre-deposition stage (ii) syn-deposition stage (iii) post-deposition stage
Answer
B. (ii) and (iii) only
37
A bay-head delta is formed in
Answer
B. wave-dominated estuary
38
A ripple bedding in which thin streaks of mud occur between sets of cross- laminated or ripple-laminated sandy/silty sediment, is referred to as
Answer
D. Flaser bedding
39
In a semi-log graph sheet, a normally-distributed sediment sample will be plotted as
Answer
A. a straight line
40
Botryoidal cement in carbonate is a product of
Answer
B. Seaļ¬oor diagenesis
41
Dip is measured:
Answer
C. Perpendicular to strike
42
Joints diļ¬er from faults because joints:
Answer
B. Show no signiļ¬cant displacement
43
What is the main purpose of a stereonet in structural geology?
Answer
B. Plotting three-dimensional orientations on a two-dimensional surface
44
Slickensides are useful because they indicate:
Answer
C. Direction of fault movement
45
Which of the following is the best example of a penetrative structure?
Answer
C. Cleavage developed throughout the rock mass
46
Which fold classiļ¬cation is based mainly on the orientation of the axial plane?
Answer
C. Upright and inclined folds
47
Which type of unconformity occurs when sedimentary rocks overlie eroded igneous or metamorphic rocks?
Answer
C. Nonconformity
48
Mineral stretching lineation observed within a foliation plane most commonly indicates:
Answer
B. Direction of maximum stretching during deformation
49
Which structure most likely records progressive deformation rather than instantaneous failure?
Answer
C. Crenulation cleavage
50
Why can fold vergence be misleading in tectonic interpretation?
Answer
B. Later deformation may rotate earlier folds
51
A fossil that is geographically distributed widely, but with a limited age
Answer
D. Index fossil
52
Which among the following is found below the Carbonate Compensation Depth (CCD)?
Answer
A. Radiolaria
53
The extinction of Trilobites occurred during
Answer
D. Permian
54
The sinistral form of Gastropoda is
Answer
C. Physa
55
Identify the wrong statement from the following regarding Graptoloidea evolution:
Answer
A. The evolutionary trend in graptoloids shows a progressive increase in the number of stipes over geological time.
56
The concept of layering in sedimentary rocks and the introduction of the term āstrataā to denote the layers was proposed by:
Answer
B. Nicholas Steno
57
The Cretaceous-Paleogene (K-Pg) boundary across the globe is known for
Answer
C. Extinction of the dinosaurs
58
Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following : Assertion (A): The Quilon Formation has limestone as the major lithology Reason (R): The Quilon Formation was deposited in a marine setting
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
59
Match the Lithostratigraphic units in Group I with their relative description in Group II: Group I Group II (a) Group (i) The smallest formal unit (b) Formation (ii) A subdivision of a Formation, mappable only within speciļ¬c boundaries (c) Member (iii) The basic, fundamental mapping unit with distinct lithological characteristic (d) Bed (iv) Two or more contiguous units having signiļ¬cant lithological characteristics
Answer
A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
60
Which of the following regarding the Vindhyan Supergroup is not correctly matched?
Answer
D. Semri Group: Panna Shale
61
During mineral processing, unwanted silicate materials removed from the ore are called:
Answer
C. Gangue
62
A mining engineer estimates that a gold ore has a enor of 5 g/tonne. What does it mean:
Answer
B. 5 grams of gold are present in one tonne of ore
63
A mineral deposit estimated through geological evidence but not fully explored is best called:
Answer
B. Resource
64
In an area, dense minerals are concentrated at the bottom of a magma chamber. Which process explains this concentration?
Answer
A. Magmatic segregation
65
A geologist identiļ¬es bauxite deposits formed after intense weathering of alumina-rich rocks in tropical regions. Which process explains this formation?
Answer
A. Residual concentration
66
An exploration project on the coast identiļ¬es economically valuable heavy minerals concentrated in beach sands. Which process should be considered during evaluation?
Answer
B. Wave and current sorting of dense minerals
67
A government identiļ¬es dependence on imported rare earth elements as a national risk. Which strategy would best reduce this vulnerability?
Answer
B. Develop domestic exploration and recycling programs
68
A country rich in graphite resources invests heavily in battery manufacturing industries. Which application of graphite supports this decision?
Answer
B. Graphite acts as an anode material in lithium-ion batteries
69
A steel plant lines its furnace with magnesite bricks. Why is magnesite preferred?
Answer
B. It withstands high temperatures and basic slag conditions
70
A sustainable mineral development strategy in India would include:
Answer
B. Scientiļ¬c mining and environmental management
71
Which mining method is best suited for mining shallow and low-grade ore deposits near the surface?
Answer
C. Open cast mining
72
One of the major environmental impacts associated with open cast mining is
Answer
D. Severe Land Degradation
73
The quantitative measurement of metallic or non-metallic elements contained in an ore sample is called
Answer
A. Assay Value
74
What is the immediate consequence of ozone layer depletion?
Answer
D. Increased levels of ultraviolet radiations reaching the Earth's surface
75
The direct environmental consequence of an earthquake does not include?
Answer
A. Eutrophication
76
A common consequence of urbanization on the hydrological cycle is
Answer
A. Increased surface runoļ¬ and reduced groundwater recharge
77
What is a common urban planning challenge associated with heavy urbanization in areas dominated by limestone topography?
Answer
B. Increased risk of sudden sinkhole formation and groundwater contamination
78
The Environment Protection Act (EPA), 1986
Answer
D. Empowers the Central Government to establish environmental standards, regulate industrial locations, and manage hazardous substances.
79
Which of the following artiļ¬cial structures is placed perpendicular to the shore to trap sand and prevent longshore erosion?
Answer
A. Groynes
80
Environmental Management Plan of a Project does not include the following;
Answer
C. Financial growth of the consultant
81
Why is speciļ¬c yield in a clay aquifer generally much lower than in a sand or gravel aquifer?
Answer
A. Clay has smaller pore spaces, causing water to be held tightly by surface tension and capillary forces
82
Which of the following best describes a conļ¬ned aquifer?
Answer
C. An aquifer sandwiched between two impermeable layers of rock or clay
83
In hydrogeological surveys, which electrode conļ¬guration expands its current electrodes symmetrically outward from a ļ¬xed centre to measure resistivity at increasing depths?
Answer
B. Schlumberger Array
84
The inverted conical shape of the water table created around a pumping well is known as the :
Answer
D. Cone of depression
85
Which structure is commonly used to recharge a deep aquifer directly?
Answer
B. Recharge borewell
86
Which layer contains partially weathered parent rock material?
Answer
A. Horizon C
87
Which mechanical property describes a rock's resistance to sliding or shearing along a plane?
Answer
D. Shear strength
88
Which of the following geological structures is the most undesirable and dangerous for a dam site?
Answer
B. Active faults
89
Which of the following is considered the slowest type of mass movement?
Answer
C. Soil creep
90
What is the required speciļ¬c gravity of a good building stone to ensure it is suitable for heavy construction?
Answer
C. Greater than 2.7
91
The line traced on the ground directly beneath the aircraft during the acquisition of photography is called
Answer
C. Nadir line
92
An expression that states that one unit of distance on a photograph represents a speciļ¬c number of units of actual ground distance
Answer
B. Scale
93
The term that refers to the apparent change in relative positions of stationary objects caused by a change in viewing position.
Answer
D. Parallax
94
The wavelength range occupied by the Visible region in the electromagnetic spectrum.
Answer
C. 0.4 mm to 0.7 mm
95
The geosynchronous orbit that is circular and has an inclination of zero degree.
Answer
A. Geostationary
96
The sensitivity of a remote sensing detector to diļ¬erences in signal strength as it records the radiation ļ¬ux reļ¬ected or emitted from the terrain.
Answer
D. Radiometric resolution.
97
The GNSS that belongs to Russia.
Answer
C. GLONASS
98
The ļ¬xing of locations of real-world features within the spatial framework of a particular coordinate system.
Answer
B. Georeferencing
99
The data model characterised by subdividing a geographic space into grid cells.
Answer
D. Raster
100
Out of the following, which is NOT a basic element of topological relationship.
Answer
C. Formatting
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