| Post Name | Junior Public Health Nurse Gr II/Nurse/Auxiliary Nurse Midwife Gr II |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 047/2026 |
| Category Code | 246/2025, 289/2025, 626/2025, 849/2025, 850/2025, 851/2025, 852/2025, 853/2025, 854/2025 |
| Date of Test | 13 May 2026 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The concept of health includes which of the following?
Answer
C. Physical, mental and social well-being
2
Which level of health care in India provides specialized services and advanced
treatment?
Answer
C. Tertiary level
3
Which principle is essential during counselling?
Answer
A. Maintaining confidentiality
4
The Primary Health Centre (PHC) mainly serves a population of approximately :
Answer
C. 30,000
5
Who is responsible for supervising the work of ANMs and ensuring implementation of
health programs at the PHC level?
Answer
B. Health Assistant (Female) / LHV
6
Most peripheral contact point between primary health care system and community:
Answer
B. Sub Centre
7
The local self-government in the state is based on a three tier structure, known as :
Answer
A. Panchayati Raj
8
Who plays an important role in collecting data for community need assessment at the
village level?
Answer
B. ASHA Worker
9
Which of the following is an example of audio-visual communication media?
Answer
C. Television
10
Which factor mainly determines the size and composition of a community?
Answer
A. Population characteristics
11
The main purpose of counselling in community health is to :
Answer
B. Help individuals make informed decisions about their health
12
The key component of Community-Based Rehabilitation
Answer
B. Community participation
13
The main aim of National Health Policies is to:
Answer
B. Improve the health status of the population
14
Which communication method is most effective for behaviour change in the community?
Answer
D. Interpersonal communication
15
Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease?
Answer
D. Cancer
16
Which of the following is best for technical supervision?
Answer
A. Check-lists
17
Which of the following best explains “Community Participation” in community
dynamics?
Answer
C. Active involvement of people in planning and implementing programs
18
The “proximate principles” of nutrients are :
Answer
B. Macro nutrients
19
Linoleic Acid is an example of which Fatty Acid :
Answer
C. Polyunsaturated
20
An alternate name of pantothenic acid :
Answer
C. Vitamin B5
21
Daily requirement of Iron during pregnancy :
Answer
Question Cancelled
22
Bitot’s spot is associated with deficiency of :
Answer
B. Vitamin A
23
An infectious disease that can be prevented by personal hygiene :
Answer
C. Trachoma
24
The scale which is used to assess the risk for pressure sore development :
Answer
B. Braden Scale
25
The center that controls the endocrine and nervous system :
Answer
B. Hypothalamus
26
Which of the following infectious agent causes Weil’s disease?
Answer
A. Leptospirae
27
The economical method of softening of hard water on a large scale is :
Answer
C. Permutit process
28
Chemical formula of bleaching powder :
Answer
A. CaOCl2
29
Which of the following statement is correct about the health Hazards of improper excreta
disposal?
Answer
D. All of the above
30
A specialized end-of-life care for terminal illness :
Answer
C. Hospice
31
Signs and symptoms of maladjustment :
Answer
D. All the above
32
Senseless repetition of words that are not understandable :
Answer
B. Verbigeration
33
A state of well-being in which an individual cope-up with normal stresses of life :
Answer
C. Mental health
34
Which of the following statement is/are correct about components of environment?
(i) Physical
(ii) Genetic
(iii) Social
(iv) Biologic
Answer
C. Only (i), (iii) & (iv)
35
The ‘‘Iceberg Phenomenon” in disease refers to :
Answer
C. Large number of subclinical cases hidden beneath diagnosed cases
36
Which of the following is the most effective measure to break the chain of infection in a
hospital?
Answer
D. Hand Hygiene
37
The disease which transmitted through vector is :
Answer
B. Malaria
38
Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?
Answer
C. Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby
39
Catch-up Vaccination means :
Answer
B. Given to individuals who missed vaccination of the recommended age
40
What is the correct order of steps after collecting the specimen?
Answer
B. Label-Transport-Document
41
Which factor affects the effectiveness of disinfection?
Answer
D. All the above
42
A carrier is defined as :
Answer
B. A person who transmits disease without showing symptoms
43
Which of the following is a primary protective strategy during an epidemic?
Answer
B. Vaccination
44
Which method of sterilization is most suitable for heat sensitive medical equipment?
Answer
C. Ethylene Oxide gas
45
Fever characterized by a variation of temperature more than two degrees between
morning and evening but does not return to normal :
Answer
B. Remittent fever
46
Which of the following is the most specific and gold standard test for the diagnosis of
active pulmonary tuberculosis?
Answer
C. Sputum culture
47
In the ‘FAST’ assessment for stroke, What does the letter ‘T' stands for :
Answer
B. Time
48
Oliguria is a condition in which urine volume is less than :
Answer
A. 400 ml
49
Twisting of bowel is known as :
Answer
B. Volvulus
50
Decreased platelet count in blood is known as :
Answer
D. Thrombocytopenia
51
Drugs that inhibit the cough reflex :
Answer
C. Antitussives
52
First line drug in the management of anaphylaxis :
Answer
D. Epinephrine
53
During high quality CPR in an adult which of the following combination best reflect
current guidelines regarding compression depth, rate, recoil and interruption :
Answer
B. Depth 5-6 cm, rate 100-120/min, allow full recoil, interruption < 10 second
54
Which type of fracture is typically seen in osteoporosis?
Answer
C. Compression fracture
55
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the laws of growth?
(i) Growth and development of children is a continuous and orderly process.
(ii) The foetus grows fast in the first half of gestation.
(iii) In the early postnatal period the velocity of growth is slow.
(iv) Growth decelerates after puberty and then ceases altogether
Answer
C. Only (i), (ii) & (iv)
56
Indicator of chronic malnutrition with low height for age is :
Answer
C. Stunting
57
Separation anxiety in children is also called :
Answer
C. Anaclitic depression
58
Which among the following statement is/are correct about head circumference?
(i) Average head circumference measures about 35 cm at birth
(ii) At 6 months, it is about 40 cm
(iii) At 24 months, it is about 45 cm
(iv) At 12 years, it becomes almost same as adult
Answer
A. Only (i) & (iv)
59
“Baggy pants appearance” is seen in :
Answer
D. Marasmus
60
The first to receive protection and relief in times of disaster is :
Answer
B. Children
61
Development of breasts during puberty in girls is termed as :
Answer
C. Thelarche
62
‘Ugly duckling stage’ refers to :
Answer
C. Schooler
63
ICDS services are provided at a centre called :
Answer
A. Anganwadi
64
Deficiency of Vitamin D leads to :
Answer
C. Rickets
65
In school health programme deworming is done :
Answer
C. Biannually
66
A short-term type of restraint used in infants and small children during examinations
and treatment of head and neck is :
Answer
C. Mummy restraint
67
The adolescent health programme under National Rural Health Mission as a part of
RCH II is :
Answer
C. ARSH
68
Ovulation occurs on approximately which day of a 28 day cycle?
Answer
B. Day 14
69
Which type of female pelvis is most favorable for vaginal delivery?
Answer
C. Gynecoid
70
The largest transverse diameter of the fetal skull is :
Answer
A. Biparietal diameter
71
At what gestational age does a fetus become viable :
Answer
C. 24 weeks
72
Fetal heart rate normally ranges between :
Answer
B. 110-160 bpm
73
Which hormone is responsible for positive pregnancy test?
Answer
C. hCG
74
Recommended daily dose of folic acid in first trimester to prevent NTD’s :
Answer
B. 400 mcg
75
Danger sign in pregnancy requiring immediate referral is :
Answer
B. Vaginal Bleeding
76
Minimum hemoglobin level considered normal in pregnancy :
Answer
C. 11 g/dL
77
Drug of choice for active management of 3rd stage of labour is :
Answer
B. Oxytocin 10 IU IM
78
APGAR score is assessed at :
Answer
A. 1 and 5 minutes after birth
79
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) promotes :
Answer
B. Institutional delivery with cash incentive
80
Most common medical disorder complicating pregnancy in India :
Answer
D. Anemia
81
“Snow- storm” appearance on USG is seen in :
Answer
B. Complete mole
82
Shirodkar procedure commonly used in which type of abortion?
Answer
B. Habitual abortion
83
Name of the psychiatric disorder which is seen in puerperium with sudden onset usually
within 4 days of delivery especially with past history of psychosis :
Answer
C. postpartum psychosis
84
What are the risk factors of RDS in newborns?
Answer
D. All of the above
85
It is the congenital malformations in newborn showing features of vomiting being
copious, bile stained usually common in babies born of mothers with hydramnios, IUGR
and down’s syndrome :
Answer
A. Duodenal atresia
86
What diseases does Human papilloma virus cause?
Answer
D. Only
87
One third or more pregnant women can be asymptomatic vaginal carrier of which
bacterial infection with recurring colonization?
Answer
B. Group B Streptococcus
88
What program has the government of India started in 1951 to stabilize the population
growth with the objective of reducing birth rate?
Answer
A. National family welfare program
89
What is a neurological syndrome in babies characterised by disordered movement,
posture, tone and power and is often associated with intellectual deficit and epilepsy?
Answer
A. Cerebral Palsy
90
What is the complex endocrine disorder associated with long term anovulation and an
excess of androgen circulation in the blood?
Answer
B. PCOS
91
What is an involuntary loss of products of conception prior to 28 weeks of gestation?
Answer
A. Spontaneous abortion
92
Which drug is used in the management of pregnancy induced hypertension to prevent
pre-eclampsia and intra-uterine growth retardation?
Answer
B. Aspirin
93
Which method is used for assessing whether the cervix is favourable for induction of
labour?
Answer
B. Bishop score
94
What is the term refers to state in which a couple has tried unsuccessfully to have a
child for a year or more?
Answer
B. Subfertility
95
In the public sector, a __________ is the most peripheral and first contact point between
the primary health care system and the community.
Answer
A. Sub-Health Centre (Sub-centre)
96
MIES means :
Answer
C. Management Information and Evaluation System
97
__________ are an essential tool of communication between the members of the health
team.
Answer
C. Reports and records
98
Which of the following statement is/are correct about ASHA workers?
(i) ASHA is an important link of National Rural Health Mission [NHRM]
(ii) ASHA does not coordinate with rural population in identifying and resolving
various health related programmes and problems at appropriate time.
Answer
B. Only (i)
99
National Goiter control programme was renamed as :
Answer
D. National Iodine Deficiency Disorder Control Programme (NIDDCP)
100
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(i) Continuing education is the part of self development.
(ii) Self development is necessary for development of education.
Answer
B. Both (i) and (ii)
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