| Post Name | Junior Scientific Officer- Health Services |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 030/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 422/2024 |
| Date of Test | 19 February 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A 70 year old male on mechanical ventilation develops ventilator-associated pneumonia.Endotracheal aspirate culture yields Acinetobacter baumannii resistant to carbapenems. Molecular testing detects the blaOXA-23 gene. Select the WRONG statement regarding this isolate:
Answer
B. Ceftazidime-avibactam is the preferred targeted therapy for this infection
2
Etiological agents of the following clinical conditions are strict anaerobes, EXCEPT
Answer
C. A patient presenting with a painless ulcer with a black eschar and surrounding oedema following contact with animal products
3
Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores are ideally used as the biological indicator for monitoring the eļ¬ectiveness of all of the following sterilisation methods EXCEPT
Answer
C. Hot air oven
4
A 23-year-old woman presents with high-grade fever, hypotension, diļ¬use erythematous rash and subsequent desquamation of palms and soles. She recently used intravaginal tampons. Blood cultures are sterile. Which virulence factor is primarily responsible for the pathogenesis of this condition?
Answer
C. Superantigen causing non-speciļ¬c T-cell activation
5
Which of the following statements regarding Reverse Transcriptase-Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR) is True?
Answer
C. Reverse transcriptase synthesizes complementary DNA from RNA template prior to PCR ampliļ¬cation
6
A 5-year-old unimmunised child presents with fever, sore throat, stridor and progressive breathing diļ¬culty. Examination reveals a greyish pseudomembrane over the tonsillopharyngeal region. The child is immediately treated with antidiphtheritic serum (ADS) along with antibiotics. The protective immune mechanism provided by ADS in this child is best described as
Answer
B. Passive immunity through neutralisation of diphtheria toxin by pre-formed antibodies
7
Select the WRONG statement regarding immunoglobulins
Answer
B. IgA2 is the dominant subclass in serum
8
Select the WRONG match between complement deļ¬ciency and the associated clinical condition
Answer
D. C1 inhibitor deļ¬ciency - Chronic granulomatous disease
9
With respect to Interferon-Gamma Release Assays (IGRA), which of the following statements are correct? 1. IGRA measures interferon - released from sensitized T lymphocytes following exposure to ESAT-6 and CFP-10 antigens 2. IGRA shows false-positive results in individuals vaccinated with BCG 3. IGRA can reliably diļ¬erentiate active tuberculosis from latent tuberculosis infection 4. IGRA does not use Puriļ¬ed Protein Derivative (PPD) as the stimulating antigen
Answer
A. 1 and 4 only
10
Select the CORRECT statement?
Answer
B. Paul-Bunnell test uses sheep red blood cells to detect heterophile antibodies in Epstein-Barr virus infection
11
Which of the following toxins is commonly associated with community-acquired MRSA (CA-MRSA) strains?
Answer
C. Panton-Valentine Leukocidin toxin
12
Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT) for leptospirosis uses antigens in the form of
Answer
D. Live leptospiral cultures
13
Which of the following cell lines is a diploid cell line?
Answer
C. WI-38
14
Congenital Human Cytomegalovirus (HCMV) infection is best diagnosed by
Answer
B. CMV culture or PCR from urine or saliva within 3 weeks of birth
15
Which ļ¬avivirus shares the highest antigenic cross-reactivity with Japanese Encephalitis Virus potentially complicating serological diagnosis?
Answer
A. West Nile Virus
16
Best laboratory test to monitor response to antiviral therapy in chronic Hepatitis B virus infection
Answer
D. HBV DNA quantitative PCR
17
Which among the following dimorphic true pathogenic fungi causing systemic mycosis grow most quickly in culture?
Answer
C. Coccidioides immitis
18
Onychomycosis is caused by all of the following fungus EXCEPT
Answer
A. Microsporum canis
19
Which of the following statement regarding Plasmodium vivax infection is incorrect?
Answer
C. Normal sized RBCs
20
Human Develop Neurocysticercosis by
Answer
A. Eating undercooked pork
21
The most appropriate indicator organism for faecal contamination of drinking water is
Answer
B. Escherichia coli
22
Which medium is best for air sampling in operation theatres?
Answer
C. Blood agar
23
The commonest mode of transmission of human brucellosis is
Answer
D. Consumption of unpasteurized milk
24
Which laboratory test is most useful for early diagnosis of rabies in humans?
Answer
C. RT-PCR of saliva
25
Which of the following situations requires handwashing rather than alcohol-based hand rub?
Answer
D. After caring for diarrhoea patient
26
Which statement regarding needle-stick injury prevention is correct?
Answer
C. Used needles should be disposed in puncture-resistant containers
27
Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with outbreaks due to contaminated disinfectants in hospitals?
Answer
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
28
The MOST appropriate specimen for screening MRSA carriage in hospitalized paitents is
Answer
A. Nasal swab
29
The recommended blood volume per culture bottle for adults is
Answer
C. 8-10 mL
30
For suspected anaerobic infections, the MOST appropriate specimen for culture is
Answer
D. Aspirated pus in sealed syringe
31
Which of the following containers does not require calibration in clinical laboratory?
Answer
Question Cancelled
32
Find the mismatched pair for biomedical waste disposal
Answer
A. Yellow bag : Sharp objects, needles
33
In which type of ELISA the absorbance is inversely proportional to the substrate concentration?
Answer
C. Competitive ELISA
34
Which among this is true regarding ion selective electrodes (ISEs)
Answer
Question Cancelled
35
Most laboratory errors are attributed to which phase of laboratory process?
Answer
D. Pre-analytical
36
In capillary electrophoresis
Answer
A. Low molecular weight ions as well as proteins and macromolecules can be separated
37
The number of ATP produced when one molecule of acetyl CoA is oxidized through the TCA cycle
Answer
B. 10
38
The lipoprotein that contains Apo, B100, Apo E and Apo C is
Answer
A. VLDL
39
A test was performed on a urine sample using ammoniacal silver nitrate, potassium cyanide, sodium nitroprusside and magenta color was obtained, this indicated the presence of which amino acid in urine
Answer
C. Homocystine
40
L:S ratio 2:1 suggest :
Answer
A. Presence of phosphatidyl glycerol in amniotic ļ¬uid
41
Which laboratory ļ¬nding is abnormal in a pregnant woman at 24 weeks of gestation?
Answer
Question Cancelled
42
Which of the following statement is/are correct about cardiac markers? (i) CK-MB isoenzyme value in serum is increased in myocardial infarction (ii) Patients with myocardial infarction have high plasma concentrations of Brain Natriuretic peptide (iii) Myoglobin is raised after myocardial infarction
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
43
Normal reference level of serum uric acid is
Answer
B. 3 - 7 mg/dL
44
Urobilinogen is synthesized in
Answer
D. Intestine
45
Which of the following statement is/are causes of haemolytic jaundice? (i) Rh incompatibility (ii) Hereditary spherocytosis (iii) Viral hepatitis
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
46
Which of the following statement is/are correct about functions of Vitamin C? (i) Ascorbic acid is necessary for the post-translational hydroxylation of leucine and lysine (ii) Ascorbic acid enhances iron absorption from the intestine (iii) Ascorbic acid helps the enzyme folate reductase to reduce folic acid to tetrahydrafolic acid
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
47
Which of the following are copper containing enzyme? (i) ALA synthase (ii) Tyrosinase (iii) Lysyl oxidase
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
48
Which of the following statement is/are correct about tRNA? (i) The acceptor arm has seven base pairs. The end sequence is CCA-3' (ii) The base sequence of anticodon arm are complementary to that of the mRNA codon (iii) DHU arm of tRNA is involved in binding tRNA to ribosomes
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
49
Which of the following statement is / are correct about reversible inhibitors of translation? (i) Tetracycline bind to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome and so inhibit attachment of amino acyl tRNA to the A site of ribosomes (ii) Chloramphenicol inhibits the peptidyl transferase activity of bacterial ribosomes. (iii) Penicillin prevents the translocation process
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
50
Which of the following statement is/are correct about clinical applications of polymerase chain reaction? (i) Diagnosis of bacterial and viral disease (ii) Diagnosis of genetic diseases (iii) Fossil studies
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
51
Which of the following diseases are prevented by live attenuated vaccines? (i) Mumps (ii) Yellow fever (iii) Rubella
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
52
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Immunoglobulin? (i) Immunoglobulin G is seen in secondary immune response and can pass from vascular compartment to interstitial space (ii) Immunoglobulin M is dimer and is seen in seromucous secretions of gastrointestinal tract (iii) Immunoglobulin E mediate hypersensitivity and anaphylaxis
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
53
What is the physiological impact of prolonged tourniquet application for more than one minute during venipuncture?
Answer
D. Hemoconcentration and elevated levels of protein-bound analytes
54
A 45-year-old patient on maintenance lithium therapy for bipolar disorder presents for a routine 6-monthly check up. Which of following parameters may be increased in the patient due to the chronic eļ¬ect of lithium? (i) Bilirubin (ii) Calcium (iii) Creatinine (iv) TSH
Answer
C. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
55
The WHO ASSURED criteria for point of Care Testing (POCT), includes the following (i) Aļ¬ordable, Sensitive, Speciļ¬c (ii) Universal, Reliable and Robust (iii) Equipment-free, Delivered (iv) Electronic, Documented
Answer
A. Only (i) and (iii)
56
Which methodology is used in Six Sigma to improve an existing biochemical assay process?
Answer
B. Deļ¬ne, Measure, Analyse, Improve, Control (DMAIC)
57
A 65-year-old hospitalized patient developed acute renal failure. Laboratory ļ¬ndings showed BUN/creatinine ratio > 20, urine sodium < 20 mmol/L and a fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa) < 1%. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
D. Prerenal Azotemia
58
A 30-year-old patient presented with a history of recurrent kidney stones and urinalysis revealed hexagonal crystals. Which test will help to conļ¬rm the diagnosis?
Answer
A. Urine amino acid chromatography
59
During the 'Window Period' of HIV infection, which biochemical marker is the ļ¬rst to be detectable in a patient's serum using a fourth generation ELISA?
Answer
C. p24 antigen
60
In the setting of fasting hypoglycemia, the pairing of elevated insulin level with low C-peptide level suggests the possibility of
Answer
B. Exogenous insulin administration
61
A hospital wants to sterilise plastic catheters that cannot tolerate heat or moisture. The most appropriate method is
Answer
B. Ethylene oxide
62
Which statements about GeneXpert MTB (CBNAAT) are TRUE? (i) Detects rifampicin resistance (ii) Detects isoniazid resistance (iii) Suitable for extrapulmonary samples (iv) Uses real-time PCR
Answer
C. (i), (iii) and (iv)
63
Alpha-haemolytic, optochin-sensitive, bile-soluble organism is
Answer
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
64
Immunochromatographic Tests (ICTs) are also called
Answer
A. Lateral ļ¬ow assays
65
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) is deļ¬ned as
Answer
C. Lowest concentration inhibiting visible growth
66
A microbiology lab cultures a specimen on non-nutrient agar with E.coli microorganism migrate leaving tracks on the agar surface. This culture technique is used for isolation of
Answer
D. Naegleria fowleri
67
A young adult presents with hypopigmented macules on the trunk. KOH mount shows short hyphae and round yeast cells ("spaghetti and meatballs"). The most likely diagnosis is
Answer
B. Pityriasis versicolor
68
Shell vial assay detects viral growth by
Answer
D. Immunoļ¬uorescence
69
Antigenic drift in inļ¬uenza virus is characterized by (i) Genetic reassortment (ii) Occurs in Inļ¬uenza A and B (iii) Point mutations (iv) Responsible for seasonal epidemics
Answer
C. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
70
Which of the following is the key cytokine of delayed-type hypersentivity reaction and is also used for the diagnosis of latent tuberculosis?
Answer
B. Interferon gamma
71
The primary purpose of adjuvants in vaccines is to
Answer
A. Enhance immune response
72
The MOST important single measure to prevent nosocomial (health care associated) infections is
Answer
C. Hand hygiene
73
Karyotyping is done for
Answer
A. Chromosomal disorders
74
Nuclear stain used in papanicolaou stain is
Answer
A. Haematoxyline
75
Karyotyping is done in which phase of cell cycle
Answer
C. Metaphase
76
Special stain to demonstrate iron is
Answer
A. Perl stain
77
Anticoagulant of choice for prothrombin time is
Answer
D. Trisodium citrate
78
Most common blood transfusion reaction is
Answer
A. Febrile haemolytic transfusion reactions
79
The characteristic ļ¬nding in peripheral smear of new born with ABO incompactibility is
Answer
A. Microsperocytes
80
The stain for Reticulocyte count is
Answer
A. Brillant cresyle blue
81
MCHC is increased in
Answer
C. Spherocytosis
82
True about Iron deļ¬ciency anaemia
Answer
A. Microcytic hypochromic rbcs
83
All are 3 chemical tests for ketone bodies in urine except
Answer
D. Hellers test
84
Heteropolysaccharides, containing uronic acid and amino sugars are known as
Answer
B. Glycosaminoglycans
85
In chromatography Rf value stands for
Answer
D. Ratio of fronts
86
All are enzymes used for diagnostic purposes, except
Answer
C. Urokinase
87
Which vitamin among the following is a prohormone?
Answer
A. Vitamin D
88
Disorders of purine metabolism includes (i) Orotic aciduria (ii) Xanthinuria (iii) Gout (iv) Lesch Nyhan syndrome
Answer
B. (ii), (iii), (iv)
89
Normal glucose level in CSF
Answer
D. 50 - 70 mg/dl
90
Following are the tests for bile pigments, except
Answer
B. Mucic acid test
91
Normal anion gap is
Answer
B. 12 mmol/liter
92
Non Protein Nitrogen (NPN) includes (i) Urea (ii) Ammonia (iii) Uric acid (iv) Creatinine
Answer
Question Cancelled
93
POCT stands for
Answer
D. Point of Care Testing
94
Important acute phase proteins are (i) Globulin (ii) CRP (iii) Albumin (iv) Ferritin (v) Haptoglobin
Answer
Question Cancelled
95
Recircularisation of the sticky ends of the DNA can be prevented by (i) Ligation by restriction endonucleases (ii) Homopolymer tailing (iii) Transfection
Answer
A. Only (ii)
96
Which enzyme activity of Taq DNA polymerase is essential for TaqMan assay?
Answer
C. Exonuclease 5' - 3' activity
97
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms (RFLPs) can be used to detect human genetic defects in prospective parents or fetal tissue for (i) Sickle cell anemia (ii) Cystic ļ¬brosis (iii) Retinoblastoma
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
98
The authorisation certiļ¬cate for Biomedical waste handling is issued by
Answer
C. State Pollution Control Board
99
In NABL-accredited laboratories, external quality control primarily ensures
Answer
D. Inter-Laboratory Comparability
100
After accidental needle-stick injury, the immediate ļ¬rst step is to
Answer
B. Wash the area with soap and water
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