| Post Name | KAS OFFICER IN KERALA ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICE(Supplimentary Exam for Gazetted Teaching Staff in Education Department) Paper I |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 065/2020 |
| Category Code | 188/2019 |
| Date of Test | 29 December 2020 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The Harappan site Kalibangan situated on the banks of river
Answer
B. Ghaggar
2
Which one of the following dynasties of Kashmir mentioned in Rajatharangini written by
Kalhana
Answer
D. All the above
3
The Third Buddhist Council convened by Ashoka at Pataliputra was presided over by Buddhist
saint
Answer
C. Mogali Putta Tissa
4
One of the Delhi Sultanate ruler was not ready to recognise the authority of Calipha
Answer
A. Qutubuddin Mubarak
5
“If there be paradise on earth, it is this, it is this, it is this” -words of Mughal emperor
Shah Jahan engraved in the walls of
Answer
C. Diwan-i-khas, Delhi
6
The social reformer wrote ‘Gift of Monotheist’
Answer
D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
7
Indian nationalist characterised British conquest of India as “Everlasting, increasing, everyday
increasing foreign invasion”
Answer
B. Dada Bai Naorojee
8
Which of the following related with 1857 Revolt is not correctly matched ?
Answer
C. Bihar- Hafiz Rahmat Khan
9
Who among the following was selected as second Sathyagrahi by Gandhi during Individual
Satyagraha ?
Answer
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
10
The Chairman of the State Reorganisation Commission of 1953
Answer
A. Fazal Ali
11
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the
lists :
List I List II
a) K. Ayyappan 1) Sarvamatha Samarasyam
b) Vaghbhatanandan 2) Swedeshabhimani
c) Chattampi Swamikal 3) Atmavidya Kahalam
d) Vakkam Moulavi 4) Sahodaran
Codes :
Answer
B. a – 4 b–3 c–1 d–2
12
Consider the following statements about the All Kerala Political Conference held
in 1928
1) The conference was held at Payyannur
2) Jawaharlal Nehru was the President of the Conference
3) It was the second All Kerala Political Conference
4) It passed a resolution requesting Indian National Congress to adopt complete
independence as the goal of the National Movement
Which of the above statements are correct ?
Answer
C. 1, 2 and 4
13
Which of the following Act made any transfer of land owned by a member of Scheduled
Tribe to a person other than a member of Scheduled Tribe invalid from 1 January 1960 ?
Answer
A. The Kerala Scheduled Tribes (Restriction on Transfer of Lands and Restoration of
Alienated Lands ) Act, 1975
14
In what year was the election to the Kerala Legislative Assembly in which the total number
of constituencies was increased to 140 for the first time ?
Answer
D. 1977
15
Which of the following statements on The Aikya Kerala Conference held at Trichur
is/are correct ?
1) The Conference was held in 1947
2) The President was K. Kelappan
3) Maharaja Cochin Sri Kerala Varma attended the Conference
Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
16
Which Bill was introduced during the first EMS Government to enact a comprehensive
legislation relating to agrarian reforms in the State of Kerala ?
Answer
A. The Kerala Agrarian Relations Bill, 1957
17
Arrange the following in chronological order :
1) Muthanaga Struggle
2) Save Silent Valley Movement
3) Chengara Struggle
4) Submission of Kasturirangan Report
Answer
B. 2, 1, 3 and 4
18
Who among the following formed International Pro-India Committee in Zurich ?
Answer
C. Chempaka Raman Pillai
19
Name the Chief Minister of Kerala who translated ‘A Short History of the World’ by
H. G. Wells into Malayalam.
Answer
B. C. Achutha Menon
20
When did Union Cabinet grant classical status to Malayalam language ?
Answer
C. 2013
21
Consider the following pairs :
Inventions Inventers
1) Flying Shuttle – John Key
2) Spinning Jenny – Ely Whitney
3) Automatic Loom – Edmund Cartwright
Which of the pairs given above is correctly matched ?
Answer
C. 1 and 3 only
22
Which one of the following is not a treaty drafted to make the peace of Paris (1919-20) ?
Answer
D. Treaty of Brest Litovsk
23
Consider the following :
1) Individuals are not responsible for their actions.
2) Religion makes a man weak.
3) Support for factory system.
4) Introducing National Workshops run by the state.
Which of the above is the feature of Robert Owen’s philosophy ?
Answer
B. 1, 2 and 3
24
Karl Marx was awarded the doctrate degree from which university and in which discipline ?
Answer
B. University of Jena in Philosophy
25
With reference to the Globalisation in India, consider the following statements :
1) Increase in flow of investments
2) Faster flow of information
3) Pace of life is slowed down
4) Fostering parochial attitude.
Which of the statement given above is incorrect ?
Answer
C. 3 and 4 only
26
With reference to Colonialism the following distinct phases are visible in the post Renaissance
practice :
1) Commercial and industrial colonialism
2) New Imperialism
3) Neo-colonialism and Globalization
4) Cold war.
Which of the above phases are incorrect ?
Answer
D. 4 only
27
Consider the following :
1) By reducing the wage rates
2) By extending the working hours
3) By decreasing the productivity of the labour
4) Vibrant trade unianism.
Which of the above is the process of the accumulation of capital to raise the surplus value ?
Answer
B. 1 and 2 only
28
With reference to the result of World War II, consider the following statements :
1) Albania became independent and a communist state
2) Austria was seperated from Germany
3) Finland ceded some territories to USA
4) Hungary and Bulgaria come under the capitalist governments.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer
B. 1 and 2 only
29
In the process of decolonisation, consider the following statements :
1) Self Government for white settler colonies
2) Formal end to empire followed by independent rule
3) Formal empire replaced by informal empire
4) Mere change of imperial masters.
Which statement given above are correct ?
Answer
B. 1 and 2 only
30
With reference to the impact of colonialism, consider the following statements :
1) Drain of resources
2) Slave trade
3) Proselytisation
4) Static life style.
Which of the statement given above is correct ?
Answer
B. 1, 2 and 3
31
With reference to the megalithic culture of Kerala, consider the following statements :
1) It is associated with funeral cult
2) Settlement sites are rarely discovered.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
32
Consider the following pairs :
Structure Function
1) Koothambalam – Temple theatre
2) Thidappally – Temple kitchen
3) Vathilmadam – Sanctum sanctorum
Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
Answer
B. 1 and 2 only
33
Which among the following Non-Keralites composed a book on the arts and crafts of
Travancore ?
Answer
A. Stella Kramrisch
34
In which of the following inscriptions earliest reference to Izhavar is made ?
Answer
C. Therisappalli Copper Plates
35
Which one of the following is not correct about Lilatilakam ?
Answer
D. It is a part of the collection called Bhakthi literature
36
With reference to Naduvazhi Swaroopams of Kerala, consider the following statements :
1) They were ruling houses with matrilineal descent
2) Among them Kochi was the most influential.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer
A. 1 only
37
Edakkal pictures belong to which of the following category ?
Answer
C. Engraving
38
Consider the following pairs :
Work Author
1) Vedadhikara Nirupanam – Chattambi Swamikal
2) Atmopadesha Satakam – Ayya Vaikunda Swami
3) Acharabhushanam – Pandit Karuppan
Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
Answer
C. 1 and 3 only
39
Of the following social movements of Kerala, which one addressed the question of inequality
within the Christian community ?
Answer
B. Pratyaksha Raksha Daiva Sabha
40
Benjamin Bailey is associated with the publication of the first newspaper in Kerala called
Answer
D. Jnana Nikshepam
41
The most profound influence and material source of the Constitution of India is the
Answer
C. Government of India Act, 1935
42
Article 38(2) of the Constitution stipulates
Answer
D. The state shall, in particular, strive to minimise the inequalities in income, and endeavour to
eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but
also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.
43
Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that subject to public order, morality and health,
every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right to own and acquire
movable and immovable property; and to administer such property in accordance with law ?
Answer
B. 26
44
With reference to the source of Indian Constitution which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched ?
Answer
C. U. S. Constitution – Single Citizenship
45
Article 51A (g) deals with
Answer
D. Protection of environment
46
Which one of the Article does not require a special majority of legislatures of not less than
one half of the states by resolution to that effect passed by the those legislatures before the
bill making provision for such amendment is presented to the President for assent ?
Answer
B. Article 169
47
Article 75 of the Constitution insists that members of the Central Council of Ministers
Answer
C. Must be a member of either House of Parliament
48
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1) Money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
2) It can be introduced only on the recommendations of the President.
3) If any question arises whether a bill is a money bill or not the decision of the Finance
Minister is final.
4) Money bill cannot be amended or rejected by Rajya Sabha.
Answer
D. 1, 2 and 4
49
The State Legislatures of Indian Union consists of
Answer
A. Governor, Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council, if there is one
50
Which Parliamentary Committee examines the annual audit reports of the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India which are laid down before the Parliament by
President ?
Answer
B. The Public Accounts Committee
51
Constitutional remedies enshrined in Article 32 of the Indian Constitution entrusts the
responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
Answer
A. Exclusively with Supreme Court of India
52
Consider the following statements :
1) The term federation has no where been used in the Constitution of India.
2) Constitutionally India is a union of states with an indestructible union of destructible
states.
3) Indian constitution has incorporated a large number of unitary features and thus
deviated from the traditional federal systems.
4) Under the scheme of Indian constitution greater power is conferred upon the centre
vis-à-vis the states.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
53
Which one of the following rights is not guaranteed as a fundamental right under the
Constitution of India ?
Answer
D. No person accused of any offence shall be presumed guilty unless it is proved
according to the procedure established by law.
54
Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, the breach of which of
the following orders amounts to an offence that is punishable with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to twenty
thousand rupees, or with both
Answer
C. Protection order
55
As per clause (3) of Article 145 of the Constitution of India, which of the following cases shall
be decided by a bench consisting of not less than five judges of the Supreme Court ?
Answer
B. Cases involving substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the constitution
56
As regards judicial review of legislations by ‘tribunals’ established under Articles 323-A or
323-B of the Constitution, which of the following statements is correct ?
Answer
D. Tribunals have the powers to review the constitutional validity of legislations excepting
the validity of the parent Acts under which they are established
57
Amendment to which of the following Parts/Chapters of the Constitution require ratification
by more than one-half of the States ?
i) Part – III : Fundamental Rights
ii) Chapter – IV of Part – V : Union Judiciary
iii) Chapter – V of Part – VI : State Judiciary
iv) Chapter – VI of Part – VI : Subordinate courts
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer
C. Only ii) and iii)
58
If the President of India issues proclamation under Article 352 of the Constitution of India
declaring that the security of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened by ‘war’
or by ‘external aggression’, which of the following consequences ensue ?
Answer
A. Only the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 stand suspended
automatically
59
Which of the three lists in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains an entry that
explicitly includes ‘land revenue’ as a subject matter of legislation ?
Answer
B. List II – State List
60
Which of the following disputes can be adjudicated by the Telecom Disputes Settlement and
Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) ?
i) Dispute between licensor and licensee
ii) Dispute between two or more service providers
iii) Dispute between service provider and a group of consumers
iv) Dispute between service provider and an individual consumer
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer
B. Only i), ii) and iii)
61
By virtue of the principles of separation of powers incorporated under the Indian Constitution,
which one of the following is impermissible ?
Answer
D. Both A) and C)
62
As per Wednesbury principle, which of the following test(s) is applied to determine the
unreasonableness of decisions of the executive authorities ?
i) Whether the decision making authority took into account factors that ought not to have
been taken into account ?
ii) Whether the decision making authority failed to take into account factors that ought to
have been taken into account ?
iii) Whether the decision of the authority is so outrageous in its defiance of logic or of
accepted moral standards that no sensible person who had applied his mind to the
question to be decided could have arrived at such a decision ?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer
A. All the three tests
63
Consider the following statement which is relating to stabilization and structural adjustment
programme of the IMF – World Bank
1) Stabilization which basically implies cutting down fiscal deficit and the rate of growth of
money supply.
2) Domestic liberalization which consists of relaxing restrictions on production,
investment prices and increasing the role of market signals in guiding resource
allocations.
3) External sector liberalization or relaxing restrictions on international flows of goods,
services, technology and capital.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer
A. 1, 2 and 3
64
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Answer
D. ASEAN – Economic organisation of all Asian countries
65
Indian Constitution provides for a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as its head to
aid and advise the President in the exercise of his function under which Article ?
Answer
A. Article 74
66
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGA) came into
force from 2nd February 2006 in
Answer
D. 200 Notified Districts
67
Which of the following steps have been taken by the Govt. of India to improve the working
of the public sector undertaking before the adoption of its new economic policy ?
1) Closure of Sick Units.
2) Nationalization of joint public-private units.
3) National Renewal Fund.
4) Golden shake hand.
The correct answer is
Answer
C. 3 and 4
68
“At the district level the Collector or the Deputy Commissioner should be the captain of the team
of officers of all developments and should be made fully responsible for securing the necessary
co-ordination and co-operation in the preparation and execution of the district plans for community
development.” The above statement is associated with
Answer
A. Balwantrai Mehta Committee
69
Consider the following principles relating to United Nations to shape its policies
1) To maintain international peace and security.
2) To develop friendly relations among nations.
3) To achieve international co-operation in solving socio-economic problems of a
country.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
70
Which one of the following element is related to transaction cost economics theory ?
Answer
B. Bounded rationality
71
In three coloured boxes – Red, Blue and Green, 90 balls are placed. There are twice as many
balls in the Red and Blue boxes combined as there are in the Green box and there are twice as
many balls in the Green box as there are in the Red box. How many balls are there in the Blue
box ?
Answer
B. 45
72
Find the next term in the following series. 216, 512, 1000, 1728, ?
Answer
A. 2744
73
Showing a women in the park, Pushpa said, “She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son.”
How is Pushpa related to that woman ?
Answer
A. Sister
74
If '+' implies '−', '−' implies '+', '×' implies '÷' and '÷' implies '×', then insert the proper signs between the figures in the given equation 12 __ 9 __ 6 __ 2 __ 1 = 14.
Answer
B. −, ×, ÷, +
75
In a test in which 200 students appeared, 150 passed in Physics, 110 passed in Mathematics,
and 125 passed in Chemistry. 50 students passed in only one subject and 75 students passed
in only two subjects. 10 students passed no subjects. How many students passed in all the three
subjects ?
Answer
D. None of these
76
What fraction of 3 hours is 24 seconds?
Answer
C. 1/450
77
Arun’s present age is one third of the age of his father. After 15 years, his age will be one
half of age of his father. How old is Arun’s father at present ?
Answer
D. 45
78
The average temperature on Sunday, Monday and Tuesday was 27°C. The average
temperature on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was 29°C. If the temperature on
Wednesday was 30°C, find the temperature on Sunday.
Answer
D. 24
79
Mrs. Smitha celebrated her wedding anniversary on 15th September 2015. When will she
celebrate her next wedding anniversary on same day (Tuesday) ?
Answer
A. 2020
80
Mohan walks 20 m towards south from his house, turn left and walks 30 m, then turns right and
walks 20 m to his office. In which direction and how much far is the office from his house ?
Answer
D. South East 50 m
81
John went to consult an insurance agent to take insurance for his kids. The agent asked
the age of his kids. John replied, the product of his kids ages is 36 and sum of their ages
is equal to the number of shops in front of the insurance office. Agent asked for more data.
Then John told that his eldest son likes chocolates. What will be the ages of John’s kids ?
Answer
C. 9, 2, 2
82
Four friends – Suresh, Fathima, Vijay and Maria have different heights. Fathima is shorter
than Vijay. The only person shorter than Suresh is Maria. Who among them is highest ?
Answer
C. Vijay
83
Complete the series BY5, EW7, HU11, ________.
Answer
D. KS13
84
Roshan sold his motorcycle for Rs. 70,000 and losses some amount. If he had sold it for
Rs. 82,000, his gain would have been double the former loss. The cost price of Roshan’s
motorcycle is
Answer
C. 74,000
85
Consider the following matrix:
Row 1: ↑↓ | ↑↑ | ↓↑
Row 2: ↓→ | ↓← | ↑←
Row 3: ←↓ | [blank] | →↑
Which one of the following figures fits into the blank part of the above matrix?
Answer
A. ←↑
86
The irregularities on the beds of the ocean which lies submerged beneath the surface of
water are known as
Answer
A. Submarine relief
87
The lowest layer of the atmosphere is
Answer
D. Troposphere
88
The standard meridian of India for the calculation of time is
Answer
C. 82° 30′ E
89
The factors that control weather and climate are
1) Distribution of land and water
2) General circulation of the atmosphere
3) General circulation of the ocean
Which one of the below is/are correct ?
Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
90
Consider the following pairs :
Agents Associated Landforms
1) Glacier – Hanging Valley
2) River – Delta
3) Wind – Barkhans
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
91
A graphic record of the earthquake vibration obtained by the instrument is called
Answer
A. Seismogram
92
An opening in the earth crust through which rock fragments lava ash steam and other gases
are emitted is called
Answer
A. Volcano
93
A huge sea wave caused by submarine earthquake is called
Answer
D. Tsunamis
94
The plane along which the two air masses with different temperature meet is known as
Answer
B. Front
95
During floods, the river spreads out on either side, and the load is deposited along the edges
of the channel, these raised embankments are called
Answer
C. Levees
96
Which among the following countries is the leading producer of wool in the world ?
Answer
D. Australia
97
Which of the following pairs given below are correctly matched ?
River Origin
1) Narmada – Amarkantak
2) Godavari – Tryambakeswar
3) Satluj – Verinag spring
4) Jhelum – Rakshastal
5) Beas – Beas kund
Answer
A. 1, 2 and 5
98
Which among the following statements regarding the South West Monsoon in Kerala are
correct ?
1) The rainfall decreases from South to North
2) Maximum rainfall is received during the month of July
3) 80% of the state’s average annual rainfall is received from the South West Monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Answer
C. 2 and 3
99
Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary is located in
Answer
A. Little Rann of Kutch, Gujarat
100
Which of the following is the correct descending sequence of districts in Kerala, in terms of
percentage of paddy area to gross cropped area ?
1) Palakkad
2) Alappuzha
3) Kottayam
4) Thrissur
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Answer
B. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
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