| Post Name | L.D. TECHNICIAN/ LABORATORY ATTENDER 038/24,084/24 |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 091/2025 |
| Category Code | 038/2024, 084/2024 |
| Date of Test | 25 July 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
All of the following belong to Romanowsky group of stains except
Answer
C. methyl violet
2
Normal range of absolute eosinophil count in blood is
Answer
D. 40 – 450 cells/mm3
3
Following are constituents of drabkin’s solution except
Answer
C. Potassium ferrocyanide
4
depth of improved Neubauer counting chamber is
Answer
A. 0.1 mm
5
Anticoagulant suitable for blood in blood transfusion is
Answer
C. Citrate, phosphate and dextrose
6
Anticoagulant present in Grey top vacutainer is
Answer
Question Cancelled
7
Fragmented Red Blood Cells in peripheral smear are called
Answer
C. Schistocytes
8
Ketone bodies in urine are all except
Answer
C. beta hydroxy stearic acid
9
All of the following fixatives contain Mercury except
Answer
A. Gander’s fluid
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
B. ,
11
Phospho tungstic acid hematoxylin stain is used for the demonstration of
Answer
B. Cross striations in muscle
12
Which of the following is the method used for removal of formalin pigment from
tissue ?
Answer
A. verocay’s method
13
All red’s scoring system is used for IHC scoring of carcinoma in the following
organ
Answer
A. Breast
14
The clearance angle of microtome knife is the angle between
Answer
C. Block face and lower cutting facet of knife
15
Which of the following is picric acid containing fixative ?
Answer
B. Bouin’s fluid
16
Carbowax fixative contains all the following ingredients except
Answer
D. diaphane
17
Which of the following can be used as a prefixative for cytologic smears ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
18
Sodium iodate is the chemical ripening agent used for the preparation of following
hematoxylin except
Answer
B. Harris
19
All the following stains are specifically used for the demonstration of Barr body
except
Answer
C. methyl green pyronin
20
The fixative specifically used for bloody smear is
Answer
D. Carnoy’s fixative
21
Nucleotides are composed of
Answer
A. a pentose sugar, a phosphate group and a base group
22
Hemophilia A and B are
Answer
C. X-linked recessive disorder
23
True about mutation
Answer
A. A permanent change in the dNA
24
In Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) single cycle involves
Answer
D. All of the above
25
Application of dNA array in transfusion medicine mainly
Answer
A. For genotyping blood group antigen
26
ABO blood group gene locus is in chromosome number
Answer
B. 9
27
The antibody present in serum of AB blood group
Answer
D. No Anti A or Anti B
28
Rh blood group system antibodies
Answer
B. IgG
29
Constituents of cryoprecipitate
Answer
D. Both
30
minimum haemoglobin level required for a whole blood donor
Answer
D. ≥12.5 gm/dl
31
The first scientist who observed bacteria and other microorganisms using a
single-lens microscope
Answer
B. Antonie van leeuwenhoek
32
All are true about dark ground microscopy except
Answer
D. Light from a high-intensity source to excite fluorescent agent is used
33
Biological Sterilization control used for Autoclave is
Answer
C. Paper strips impregnated with 106 spores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus
34
According to Biomedical Waste management Rules
Answer
D. Blue, leak-proof and puncture-proof container
35
The following specimen should not be accepted for bacterial culture
Answer
D. Tissue biopsy specimen collected in formalin
36
An ideal disinfectant for blood spillage in the laboratory
Answer
C. 1% hypochlorite solution
37
Organs of locomotion in bacteria
Answer
B. Flagella
38
The concentration of agar used for preparing semisolid media is
Answer
C. 0.5%
39
All are true about Kirby-Bauer’s disk diffusion antimicrobial susceptibility testing
except
Answer
D. The maximum number of disks per plate should be 12 disks on a 100 mm plate for
non-fastidious organisms
40
Acid-fastness in bacteria is due to the presence of
Answer
A. mycolic acid
41
All are true about the Cytochrome Oxidase test used for the identification of bacteria
except
Answer
C. The positive control organism is Escherichia coli
42
MALDI-TOF (Matrix-assisted laser desorption/ionization-time-of-flight) is
Answer
A. Automated bacterial identification system
43
Select the wrong statement regarding processing of stool samples for demonstration
of parasites.
Answer
B. Samples should be frozen if there is a delay in microscopic examination
44
Which of the following is the best method to confirm diagnosis of Visceral
leishmaniasis ?
Answer
A. demonstration of amastigote in bone marrow
45
Rapid diagnostic tests based on detection of Histidine Rich Proteins are
available for
Answer
D. malaria
46
All of the following statements are false about Cysticercosis except
Answer
A. Cysticercus cellulosae is the larvae of Taenia solium
47
Infective form of Ancylostoma duodenale is
Answer
C. Filariform larva
48
Which of the following parasites causes primary meningoencephalitis ?
Answer
C. Naegleria fowleri
49
Select the wrong statement regarding dimorphic fungi.
Answer
D. Galactomannan assay is useful for identification
50
Microscopic examination of Cerebrospinal fluid
Answer
C. SF) from an HIV infected patient
with meningitis showed Gram positive budding yeast cells. Select the true option
related to the lab diagnosis of the given condition.
51
Select the wrong match.
Answer
B. Epidermophyton – Spindle shaped microconidia
52
All of the following stains are useful for visualising fungal elements in clinical
specimen except
Answer
A. Lactophenol cotton blue
53
Processing of skin scrapings for the lab diagnosis of dermatophytosis does not
involve
Answer
C. Transporting the scrapings in plastic container
54
Germ tube test is used for identification of
Answer
D. Candida albicans
55
Following is an enveloped virus except
Answer
A. Hepatitis A
56
Example for a virus with single stranded dNA genome is
Answer
C. Parvo
57
Which among the following methods is used for quantitative titration of infectious
virus particles ?
Answer
C. Plaque assay
58
Hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by
Answer
D. Coxsackievirus
59
The correct statement concerning antigenic drift in Influenza virus is
Answer
B. It occurs more frequently than antigenic shift
60
What is the most likely reservoir for the Zika virus ?
Answer
B. monkeys
61
Acid used to prepare Chromic acid solution
Answer
D. Sulphuric Acid
62
Ideal temperature to calibrate pipette is
Answer
B. 20-25°C
63
Example for a non flammable chemical
Answer
B. Nitrogen
64
dry chemicals are used in extinguishers of
Answer
D. Class A, B and C
65
During Blood collection ‘In the order of draw’ of tubes first to fill
Answer
B. Culture tubes
66
One molar solution means
Answer
A. 1 Gm. mol. Wt. of substance in 1 litre of solution
67
The instrument in lab ‘Still’ is used to
Answer
B. Purifying water
68
The standard unit for amount of substance, used to express concentrations of
molecules and reactions
Answer
C. mole
69
Which of the following anticoagulant is used to collect blood for electrolyte
estimation ?
Answer
C. Heparin
70
Which among the following is considered as the all round preservative for urine ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
71
Choose the correct statements about haemolytic jaundice.
i. Modified Fouchet’s test is positive
ii. Hay’s test is negative
iii. Sickle cell anaemia and thalassemia are the aetiologies for haemolytic jaundice
Answer
C. Only ii and iii
72
All the following are coenzyme functions of pyridoxine
i. Transamination of amino acids
ii. decarboxylation of amino acids
iii. Transketolase reactions of HmP pathway
Answer
A. Only i and ii
73
Choose the correct statements about porphyria.
i. PBG deaminase is deficient in acute intermittent porphyria
ii. The levels of Amino levulinic Acid
Answer
D. i, ii and iii
74
Choose the correct statement about flame photometer.
i. This is an analytical instrument used for quantitative analysis of sodium, potassium
and calcium
ii. In flame photometer the optical absorption property is used
iii. The equipment consists of an atomiser and compressor which pumps air at high
pressure
Answer
B. Only i and iii
75
Choose the correct statement about applications of radioactivity for diagnosis.
i. 131I is used for thyroid scanning
ii. 90Sr is used for bone scanning
iii. Blood flow of heart could be analysed by 137Cs
Answer
A. Only i and ii
76
All the following are causes of metabolic acidosis except
Answer
B. Bronchial asthma
77
All the following are the substrates of gluconeogenesis except
Answer
D. Even chain fatty acids
78
All the following are hepatic markers except
Answer
C. CPK mB
79
All the following are true regarding calcium metabolism except
Answer
A. Calcitonin increases serum calcium
80
Which enzyme is deficient in phenylketonuria ?
Answer
B. Phenyl alanine hydroxylase
81
What is the normal reference level of Alkaline Phosphatase ?
Answer
B. 40-125 IU/l
82
Which of the following statement is true about AdH
Answer
C. Deficiency of ADH causes hypernatremia and hypertonic contraction of
extracellular fluid volume
83
In genetic code, the reduced stringency between the third base of codon and the
complementary nucleotide in the anticodon is called
Answer
D. Wobbling phenomenon
84
Which is not true regarding Reverse Transcriptase PCR ?
Answer
B. The quantitation of the number of virus present in the sample can be calculated
85
The removal of haploid nucleus from an egg and replacing with the diploid nucleus
of a somatic cell is called
Answer
C. Cloning
86
Which among the following substance in urine is detected by Ehrlich’s test ?
Answer
D. Urobilinogen
87
The advantages of using creatinine clearance test as a marker for GFR are all of the
following except
Answer
A. Very early stages of decrease in GFR can be identified by creatinine clearance
88
In Gastric function test, the free and total acid content of sample is measured by
titration with
Answer
D. N/10 NaOH
89
In urinary calculi analysis, which among the following is detected by murexide
test ?
Answer
B. Uric acid
90
In electrophoresis, the technique commonly used for determination of molecular
weight and to assess purity of proteins is
Answer
C. Sodium dodecyl Sulfate (SdS)-PAGE electrophoresis
91
Which of the following statement is/are true regarding High Performance liquid
Chromatography (HPlC) ?
i. In High Performance liquid Chromatography (HPlC), particles of small diameter
are used as stationary phase support
ii. In Reverse phase High Performance liquid Chromatography (HPlC), the
stationary phase is polar and mobile phase is non polar
iii. High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) is a subclassification of Planar
Chromatography
iv. The most popular stationary phase in Reverse phase High Performance liquid
Chromatography (HPlC) is Octadecylsilane molecules bonded to silica particles
Answer
C. Only i and iv
92
Which among the following is not a variable in Preanalytical process ?
Answer
B. Calibration
93
All the following are examples of labelled immunoassays except
Answer
A. Electroimmunoassay
94
Which of the following is true regarding closed system Automated Analysers ?
Answer
C. less variability of test results due to use of predispensed liquid reagents
95
Which of the following is a medical coding system for laboratory ?
Answer
D. LONIC (Logical Observation Identifiers Names and Codes)
96
determination of serum lithium can be done by all the following except
Answer
B. RIA (Radioimmunoassay)
97
All the following tests are used to assess Pancreatic function except
Answer
D. Albumin
98
Which of the following is the correct order of laboratory testing process ?
Answer
C. Test ordering, Specimen acquisition, Analytical measurement, Test reporting,
Test interpretation
99
Which is the visualising agent used for the identification of aminoacids in urine in
Paper Chromatography ?
Answer
A. Ninhydrin
100
Which immunoglobulin mediates Rh incompatibility ?
Answer
A. IgG
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.