| Post Name | LAB ASSISTANT- DIALYSIS |
|---|---|
| Department | MEDICAL EDUCATION |
| Question Paper Code | 116/2017 |
| Date of Test | 5 October 2017 |
| Medium of Question | English |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Number of official languages included in the VIIIth schedule of the Indian Constitution
Answer
B. 22
2
Who raised the slogan ‘No caste, No religion, No God for man’ ?
Answer
C. Sahodaran Ayyappan
3
Which of the following publication was known as the ‘bible of the socially depressed classes’ ?
Answer
D. Mithavadi
4
The first Christian missionary group arrived in Kerala
Answer
A. Jesuits
5
The oldest existing Malayalam newspaper
Answer
D. Deepika
6
The ruler who made Temple entry proclamation in Travancore in 1936
Answer
C. Sree Chithira Thirunal
7
The leader of Guruvayur Satyagraha was
Answer
A. K. Kelappan
8
Which of the following Country decided to quit the European Union in the last year ?
Answer
D. England
9
The winner of Australian Open Tennis men’s singles title - 2017
Answer
B. Roger Federer
10
Which woman freedom fighter was described by Gandhiji as ‘The Jhansi Rani of Travancore, ?
Answer
B. Akkamma Cheriyan
11
The motion of an iron ball falling down under the action of gravity near the surface of the earth is
Answer
B. uniform acceleration
12
Two object are said to have perfectly elastic collision when, before and after collision, their
Answer
A. momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
13
The process involved in the sudden bursting of cycle tyre is
Answer
C. adiabatic process
14
The temperature at which the reading on the Celsius scale of temperature and Fahrenheit scale of temperature becomes equal
Answer
D. − 40 degree
15
Fundamental equation that relates fluid pressure, fluid velocity and fluid height is
Answer
B. Bernoulli’s theorem
16
The resistance of a conductor depends on
Answer
D. all of the above
17
The vibrant colours seen on the surface of thin oil films on the surface of water is due to
Answer
A. interference of light
18
An example of universal gate is
Answer
D. NOR gate
19
The increasing order of frequency of electromagnetic wave is
Answer
C. radio wave, micro wave, X-ray, gamma ray
20
When a double convex lens with refractive index 1.5, is immersed in a solution of Carbon disulphide with refractive index 1.62, the focal length of this lens becomes ?
Answer
B. negative
21
Albumin, Globulin and Fibrinogen are
Answer
B. Plasma Proteins
22
Select the parts of nephron from the following
Answer
A. Henle’s loop and Bowman’s capsule
23
“Crossing over” during meiosis leads to
Answer
D. Gene recombination
24
Find out the character of mammals from the following
Answer
C. Hairy Exoskeleton
25
Which of the following is a Protozoan disease ?
Answer
C. Malaria
26
Hormones show “Antagonistic effects” are
Answer
B. Insulin and Glucagon
27
Who proposed the double helical structural model to DNA ?
Answer
D. James Watson and Francis Crick
28
Azotobacter and Azospirillum are
Answer
A. Bio fertilizers
29
Select the method of Exitu Conservation of Biodiversity from the following
Answer
C. Zoological park
30
Peptide bond is found in
Answer
A. Protein
31
Number of electrons present in 1 mol H2O is
Answer
C. 6.022 × 1024
32
pH of .1 Molar NaOH solution assuming complete ionization is
Answer
B. 13
33
Duma’s method is used for estimation of
Answer
A. Nitrogen
34
Which of the following is an intensive property ?
Answer
C. Density
35
The rate constant of a reaction is 2.5 × 10−4 S−1 . The order of the reaction is
Answer
A. 1
36
Number of electrons possible in a quantum level with 1=2
Answer
D. 10
37
Which of the following is a tribasic acid ?
Answer
A. H3PO4
38
Shape of XeF2 molecule is
Answer
B. Linear
39
Which of the following compounds will not undergo Iodoform test ?
Answer
D. Propanal
40
Which of the following is not a nucleophile ?
Answer
C. BF3
41
The three steps of urine formation are
Answer
C. Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
42
What is the normal adult glomerular filtration rate ?
Answer
D. 125 ml/min
43
All of the following are functions of the kidney EXCEPT
Answer
D. Release of aldosterone
44
Diffusion is the movement of
Answer
A. Solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
45
An elevated serum potassium is when the level is above
Answer
D. 5.5 mEq/L
46
Acidosis is defined when pH falls below
Answer
A. Less than 7.35
47
Primary cause of anemia in CKD is
Answer
A. Erythropoetin deficiency
48
The list below indicates reasons for malnutrition in chronic renal failure. Of these which one is considered to be the major cause of malnutrition ?
Answer
D. Decreased nutrient intake
49
In hemodialysis the removal of urea from the patient is Primarily due to the existence of
Answer
D. Concentration gradient
50
The optimum value for the dialysis solution flow rate is ___________ times the blood flow rate
Answer
C. 1.5 - 2.0
51
The first two hemodialysis treatments, for a patient with an extremely elevated BUN, are (purposely) less efficient to primarily prevent which complication ?
Answer
B. Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome
52
Transmembrane pressure consists of which of the following pressure gradients on each side of the dialysis membrane ?
Answer
D. Negative pressure on the dialysate side
53
To maintain an optimum gradient between blood and dialysate across the dialyzer membrane which type of blood to dialysate flow is used ?
Answer
C. Counter-current flow
54
The potential for an air embolism to occur during hemodialysis is great. However, the technology today makes it a rare occurrence. What possible reason could there be for this to really happen to your patient ?
Answer
C. Malfunctioning air detector
55
The dialysis machine assures the dialysate entering the dialyzer is safe for the patient’s treatment. What does it do to assure this ?
Answer
D. All of the above
56
The movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration is called
Answer
B. Osmosis
57
The volume of plasma cleared of a given substance per unit of time is the definition of
Answer
A. Clearance
58
What are the factors to consider when establishing a dry weight for the patient ?
Answer
D. All of the above
59
The process by which a large volume of fluid is removed at a rapid rate, with little or no solute removal except by convection is called
Answer
D. Isolated or pure ultrafiltration
60
The primary purpose of the proportional pump in a dialysate delivery system is to
Answer
C. Prepare the dialysate in proper water to concentrate ratio
61
Why is the hemodialysis patient discouraged from eating heavy meals before or during dialysis ?
Answer
C. May contribute to hypotension
62
Urea clearance is enhanced by
Answer
A. High blood flow rate and high dialysate flow rate
63
What is the national standard for hemodialysis prescription (weekly KT/V) to minimize morbidity/mortality rates ?
Answer
D. > 1.2
64
The regular use of a high sodium dialysate bath may predispose the patient to
Answer
D. All of the above A 9
65
Kolff developed the
Answer
A. First disposable dialyzer
66
The capability of a dialyzer to remove fluid expressed as ml/hr/mmHg is called
Answer
A. UF- coefficient
67
Pre-pump arterial pressure reading is reflective of
Answer
B. The resistance of the access to the blood flow out of the access device
68
What symptoms might be manifested in the patient experiencing air embolism ?
Answer
B. Chest pain, Shortness of Breath, confusion
69
The appearance of cherry red blood, drop in Hct, hypotension, and chest pain are signs of
Answer
D. Hemolysis
70
What determines the surface area of a hollow fiber dialyzer ?
Answer
D. All of the above
71
The most important predisposing factors for muscle cramping during hemodialysis are all EXCEPT
Answer
C. High sodium dialysis solution
72
All of the following statements concerning “first use syndrome” are true EXCEPT
Answer
D. Synthetic membranes are more commonly associated with this syndrome
73
Which of the following statements is/are true concerning disequilibrium syndrome ?
Answer
C. Occurrence is related to cerebral edema
74
Who developed the fistula ?
Answer
D. Brescia and Cimino
75
What is the purpose of a chest x-ray after the insertion of a dual lumen catheter into a subclavian or jugular vein ?
Answer
D. To confirm position and absence of pneumothorax
76
Subclavian vein catheterization should be avoided for temporary access in all patients with renal failure due to increased risk of
Answer
A. Central vein stenosis
77
The measurement of total cell volume (TCV) is used to determine
Answer
A. Performance of the dialyzer
78
Prior to every patient connection to a hemodialysis machine, the dialysate should be tested for
Answer
D. Conductivity and pH A
79
What is the purpose of regional heparinization ?
Answer
D. To anticoagulate the blood in extracorporeal unit
80
How much protamine sulfate should be given to neutralize Heparin ?
Answer
A. 1-1.5 mg protamine/100 u Heparin
81
Heparinization during hemodialysis can be best monitored by
Answer
C. Whole blood activated clotting time
82
What preventive measures can be practiced in dialysis units to control the incidence of Hepatitis B transmission ?
Answer
D. All of the above
83
During PD ultrafiltration is accomplished by the utilization of
Answer
A. Hypertonic dialysate
84
Complications of Heparin therapy include all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Chest pain
85
Low Conductivity may be caused by
Answer
B. Empty concentrate container
86
Presence of this ion is responsible for hardness of water
Answer
D. Calcium
87
The LAL (Limulus Amebocyte Lysate) assay measures
Answer
D. Endotoxins
88
Which of the following methods are used to test the dialyzer to assure its efficacy ?
Answer
D. All of the above
89
Which of the following membranes used in dialysis are not synthetic ?
Answer
C. Cellulose
90
Rule of 6 in assessing AV fistula maturation are all EXCEPT
Answer
C. less than 6 cm in length
91
Dialysis solution calcium levels normally range from
Answer
B. 2.5 to 3.0 mEq/L
92
Peritonitis in peritoneal dialysis patients is defined by
Answer
D. All of the above
93
Which among the following statements are false regarding ultrafiltration failure ?
Answer
B. Net UF is less than 400ml after a 4 hour dwell of 4.25 dextrose dialysis solution
94
Benefits of regional citrate anticoagulation are all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Hypocalcemia A
95
Potential advantages of slow continuous therapies are all EXCEPT
Answer
B. Deleterious effect on intracranial pressure
96
Dialyzer efficiency is best represented by
Answer
A. KoA
97
Hemodialysis is a therapy of choice for the following drug toxicity except
Answer
D. Amitriptyline
98
The ideal blood flow rate for membrane plasma separation
Answer
B. 100 - 150 ml/min
99
Complications during plasmapheresis are all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Hypertension
100
Type A dialyzer reaction is due to all of the following EXCEPT
Answer
D. Compliment activation -o0o- 4 A
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