| Post Name | Lab Technician & Mortuary Technician Grade II - Meat Products of India Ltd & Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 052/2022 |
| Category Code | 203/2019, 002/2020 |
| Date of Test | 11 May 2022 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Increased osmotic fragility is seen in
Answer
D. Hereditary spherocytosis
2
Which among the following is an example of supravital stain?
Answer
B. Brilliant cresyl blue
3
Clot solubility test is used for testing
Answer
D. Factor XIII activity
4
Fetal hemoglobin in RBC can be demonstrated using
Answer
C. Kleihauer acid elution method
5
Increased rouleaux formation in peripheral smear is suggestive of
Answer
A. Multiple Myeloma
6
Which among the following is an example of coloured crystal in urine?
Answer
A. Amorphous urates
7
Normal range of sperm count:
Answer
C. 60-150 million sperms/ml
8
Which disease is caused due to human ingestion of eggs of Tenia solium?
Answer
A. Cysticercosis
9
Macroscopic examination findings on sputum analysis include all EXCEPT
Answer
B. Curschmann's spirals
10
The urine preservative interfering with sulphosalicylic acid precipitation test for
protein is:
Answer
A. Toluene
11
Which among the following infection is NOT USUALLY transmitted through blood
transfusion?
Answer
B. Hepatitis A
12
The anticoagulant preservative used for storage of blood in blood bank is
Answer
A. CPD
13
The gauge of needle used for blood donation:
Answer
A. 16 G
14
False negative result in ABO Grouping occurs due to:
Answer
D. Prozone or postzone phenomenon
15
In Hemolytic Disease of Newborn, Direct Coomb's Test is used to detect:
Answer
C. Sensitized RBCs in baby's blood
16
Which of the statements about tissue Fixative is NOT TRUE?
Answer
D. Prolonged fixation preserves antigenicity well
17
Which of the following is NOT a clearing agent?
Answer
A. Ethyl Alcohol
18
In Histopathology, Honing is a process
Answer
B. To sharpen knife by removing nicks
19
Which of the following is a synthetic dye?
Answer
C. Eosin
20
Which statement is CORRECT about Alum in histotechnique?
Answer
C. Is Double sulphates of trivalent metals
21
Saccomanno fixative contains all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Glacial acetic acid
22
Which of the following is the Nuclear stain in Papanicolaou stain?
Answer
C. Haematoxylin
23
Which is NOT TRUE about Carnoy's Fixative in cytology?
Answer
C. Is a formalin-based fixative
24
Which is NOT TRUE of Barr body?
Answer
B. Seen in 40% males
25
What is NOT TRUE about Liquid Based Cytology?
Answer
A. Ancillary techniques cannot be performed on LBC smears
26
Which of the statements about Chromosome is NOT TRUE?
Answer
B. The longer arm is called 'p' and shorter arm is called 'q'
27
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about traditional Cytogenetic analysis?
Answer
C. Can be performed on non-viable tissue cells
28
Peripheral blood sample for routine karyotyping is collected in _________
Answer
B. Heparin
29
Which statement about Colcemid
Answer
D. Is a mitogen used for cell proliferation
30
In a G-banding Karyotype analysis which is the Chromosome staining pattern seen?
Answer
A. Dark bands are AT-rich (gene-poor); Light bands are CG-rich (gene-rich) regions
31
Which light source gives maximum resolution in a microscope?
Answer
A. Ultraviolet
32
The recommended holding period for sterilization of glass wares using hot air oven
set at 160°C is
Answer
D. 60 minutes
33
Which of the following vaccines was not developed by Pasteur?
Answer
A. Polio vaccine
34
Rideal-Walker test is used for testing
Answer
C. Efficacy of disinfectants
35
If a delay in bacteriological examination of CSF is anticipated it is recommended that
Answer
D. The sample should be kept in incubator at 37°C
36
Which of the following survives the holder method of pasteurization?
Answer
C. Coxiella burnetii
37
Charcot-Leyden crystals occur in
Answer
D. All the above conditions
38
Which of the following is known as human pinworm?
Answer
B. Enterobius vermicularis
39
Crescentic macrogametocytes are characteristics of
Answer
C. Plasmodium falciparum
40
DEC Provocation test is used in the diagnosis of
Answer
B. Filariasis
41
Leishmanin test is positive in
Answer
B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
42
Which of the following causes subcutaneous filariasis?
Answer
A. Mansonella streptocerca
43
The culture method for Antibiotic sensitivity
Answer
B. Lawn
44
Test for identifying pathogenic species of Staphylococcus
Answer
A. Coagulase
45
Method for sterilisation of glasswares
Answer
D. Hot Air Oven
46
Following is a dimorphic fungi
Answer
D. Histoplasma
47
Specimen which can be used for lab diagnosis of Poliomyelitis
Answer
D. All of the above
48
If there is a delay in processing, C.S.F. samples are stored at
Answer
C. 37°C
49
Common test for identification of Candida albicans
Answer
A. Germ Tube Test
50
Viral infection which can be acquired by needle prick
Answer
D. All of the above
51
Following is an Anaerobic culture medium
Answer
A. RCM
52
Cryptococcus is an example of which type of fungus?
Answer
C. Yeast
53
Dengue virus infection is transmitted by
Answer
B. Mosquito bite
54
Common staining method used to demonstrate Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Answer
B. ZN staining
55
Sabouraud's Dextrose Agar has a pH of
Answer
B. 5.4
56
Following is NOT an RNA virus
Answer
B. Hepatitis B
57
Slide culture technique is used to identify all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Cryptococcus
58
Best disinfectant which can be used for blood spills
Answer
D. Hypochlorite
59
Following is used to digest Keratin in specimens like Skin and Nail
Answer
B. KOH
60
All are screening tests used for lab diagnosis of HIV infection EXCEPT
Answer
C. Western Blot
61
Which one of the following is suitable for storing hydrofluoric acid?
Answer
C. Tightly closed polyethylene container
62
Regarding setting of a standardized Clinical Biochemistry Laboratory, which of the
following statement is NOT CORRECT?
Answer
C. There should be a provision for an ordinary refrigerator for storing flammable
chemicals
63
Which grade chemical is used for chromatographic purposes?
Answer
D. Ultra pure grade
64
All the following purification techniques produce pyrogen free water EXCEPT
Answer
C. Deionization
65
In all the following instruments filters can be used for producing monochromatic light
EXCEPT
Answer
A. Spectrophotometer
66
Which of the following is NOT used as a urine preservative?
Answer
A. Tungstic acid
67
The anticoagulant which causes least interference with clinical biochemistry tests is
Answer
B. Heparin
68
For Blood Gas Analysis, which of the following statements is FALSE?
Answer
B. Vacutainer tubes are used for blood collection
69
Which of the following is the SI unit of mass density?
Answer
B. Kilogram/cubic meter
70
In column chromatography, the analytes are identified by the comparison of their
Answer
D. Retention time with that of the standard
71
Regarding automation in the laboratory, all the following statements are true EXCEPT
Answer
D. Can correct for deficiencies inherent in methodology
72
Westgard multirule 41s indicates that four consecutive observations had exceeded
the mean plus 1s or the mean minus 1s. This control rule is sensitive to which type of
analytical error?
Answer
C. Systematic error
73
All the following statements are TRUE about preparation of buffer solutions EXCEPT
Answer
B. Prepared by combining a strong acid and its salt
74
Which is the most widely used detector for clinical analysis in gas chromatography?
Answer
A. Flame ionization detector
75
Metabolic acidosis is seen in all the following conditions EXCEPT
Answer
D. Bronchial asthma
76
What is the normality of a 500ml solution that contains 6g of HCL
(Eq. wt of HCL is 36g)?
Answer
B. 0.33N
77
Which of the following needs recalibration in the laboratory?
Answer
C. Automatic pipette
78
In accidental swallowing of acid, which of the following should NOT be done as a first
aid measure?
Answer
D. Oral intake of 5% sodium bicarbonate
79
In dry reagent systems which of the following techniques is used for mixing reactants?
Answer
D. None of the above
80
The standardized unit of radioactivity is
Answer
C. Becqueral
81
Which of the following statements regarding urinary calculi are correct?
(i) Urinary calculi require a nucleus on which crystals are deposited.
(ii) Increased excretion along with concentrated urine can be a predisposing factor.
(iii) Murexide test for analysis of calculi does not require heating.
(iv) Cyanide - nitroprusside test is used for detecting the presence of cystine in calculi.
Answer
D. Only (i, ii and iv)
82
Which of these hormones is NOT secreted by the thyroid gland?
Answer
C. Prolactin
83
Abnormal finding during gross examination of gastric juice is
Answer
C. Red or coffee brown color in appearance
84
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding CSF in a healthy individual?
Answer
B. Cells- 15-20 lymphocytes/cu.mm
85
Polyuria can be caused by
Answer
A. Diabetes mellitus
86
Regarding immunological reactions, select the incorrect statement
Answer
A. Humoral immunity denotes immunity mediated by natural killer cells and
macrophages
87
Regarding immunological methods, select the correct statement
Answer
B. Small amount of specimen is used to perform ELISA
88
Drug screening can be done by
Answer
D. All of the above
89
Regarding electrophoresis, all the following is used for staining proteins EXCEPT
Answer
A. Oil red
90
Which of these are involved in DNA replication?
Answer
B. Single stranded DNA binding proteins
91
Southern blotting uses which sample as test material for electrophoretic fractionation?
Answer
C. DNA
92
This enzyme derived from a microorganism is used in the gene cloning procedure
Answer
D. EcoR1
93
Prolactin levels are high in the following situations
Answer
D. Both
94
Drugs that can cause elevation in ALP
Answer
D. All of the above
95
With regard to diagnostic role of enzymes in myocardial infarction (MI), choose the
correct statement
Answer
A. LDH determination may be useful in late diagnosis of MI
96
Select the correct option regarding enzyme inhibition
(i) Succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by malonic acid
(ii) Iodoacetate is an irreversible inhibitor of glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
dehydrogenase
(iii) PFK is inhibited by citrate and ATP
Answer
D. All 3 statements are correct
97
Regarding digestion of lipids, it is initiated in
Answer
B. Mouth
98
Best indicator of Vitamin B6 status in plasma
Answer
B. Pyridoxal phosphate
99
Choose incorrect statement regarding laboratory observations in prehepatic
jaundice
Answer
A. Indirect bilirubin - Normal
100
Regarding type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Answer
C. Not associated with family history of DM and obesity
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