| Post Name | Laboratory Assistant/ Technician (Pharmacy)/ Technical |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 162/2024 |
| Category Code | 527/2023, 578/2023 |
| Date of Test | 16 January 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Wave number of the line in the visible region of hydrogen spectrum is
Answer
Question Cancelled
2
Which of the following set of quantum numbers is possible for the valence electron of
sodium atom ?
Answer
C. n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
3
Correct order of the first ionisation energies of the following elements
Answer
D. li < B < Be < C < N
4
methyl lithium d. Organometallic compound of platinum
with ethylene
Answer
A. 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – a
5
Hybridisation and structure of BrF3 compound is
Answer
C. sp3d, T-shaped
6
Helium does not form quinol clathrate because
Answer
B. Helium is too small to fit in quinol
7
Fajan’s rules summarize the factors favouring
Answer
D. Polarization and covalency
8
Bond order of the following molecules is in the order
+ – + –
Answer
D. N2 > O2 > O2 > O2
9
Which of the following statements are correct about hydrogen bonding ?
i. H2O is liquid.
ii. density of ice is greater than that of water.
iii. o-nitrophenol is more volatile.
Answer
C. i and iii
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
C. and
11
Identify the correct statement.
Answer
C. EdTA is a hexa-dentate ligand.
12
The number of geometrical isomers possible for
Answer
B. 2
13
Which of the following electronic configuration exhibits Jahn-Teller distortion in an ML6
complex ? (m refers to metal and l refers to ligand)
Answer
C. d7
14
What are the spin only magnetic moments of mn2+ ion in high spin and low spin
complexes, respectively ?
Answer
A. 5.92 Bm and 1.73 Bm
15
Which of the following is an ore of lead ?
Answer
D. Galena
16
Which electrolyte is used in the electrolytic reduction of Aluminium ?
Answer
A. Cryolite
17
What is the initial step in the Kroll’s process ?
Answer
A. Chlorination of Titanium ore
18
The metal ion centre present in Carbonic anhydrase is
Answer
B. Zinc
19
In deoxyhaemoglobin, the Fe2+ exists in
Answer
A. High spin state and exhibits paramagnetism
20
What is the ratio of Sodium to Potassium ions transported by the Sodium – Potassium
pump for every ATP breakdown ?
Answer
C. 3 :
21
Which of the following carbonyls is paramagnetic ?
Answer
B. mn(CO)5
22
The CO stretching frequency in IR spectroscopy decreases when
Answer
A. Backbonding is strong
23
Which of the following statements about Wilkinson’s catalyst is correct ?
I. It contains Rhodium in the + 1 oxidation state.
II. It is used for alkene hydrogenation.
III. It works via a mechanism involving oxidative addition and reductive elimination.
Answer
D. All are correct
24
Which of the following statements is correct about Fischer-Tropsch synthesis ?
I. It converts syngas into hydrocarbons.
II. It uses cobalt or iron as catalysts.
III. It produces acetaldehyde from ethene.
Answer
A. Only I and II
25
Match the following compounds with their descriptions.
1. Ferrocene a. Organometallic compound with a
sandwich structure
2. Zeise’s salt b. Catalyst for alkene hydrogenation
3. Wilkinson’s catalyst c. Tetrameric structure with alkyl bridges
4. Methyl lithium d. Organometallic compound of platinum
with ethylene
Answer
B. 1-a,2-d,3-b,4-c
26
Which of the following statements is correct about the Wacker process ?
I. The process converts ethylene to acetaldehyde.
II. Palladium (II) chloride is reduced to metallic palladium in the reaction.
III. Copper (II) chloride regenerates the palladium (II) catalyst.
Answer
C. Only I and III
27
Which of the following statements is false regarding Ziegler-Natta polymerization ?
I. It is used for producing highly branched polymers.
II. It involves coordination-insertion polymerization.
III. Tetraethylaluminium serves as a co-catalyst.
Answer
Question Cancelled
28
Which of the following ion is identified using the Chromyl chloride test ?
Answer
D. Chloride
29
In Thermo Gravimetric Analysis (TGA), what does a weight loss plateau indicate ?
Answer
B. Sample stability
30
What is the pKa value of a weak acid if its Ka value is 2.0 × 10–4 ? (log 2 = 0.30)
Answer
A. 3.70
31
Which of the following reagents is used to separate Group III cations ?
Answer
C. NH4Cl + NH3
32
Match the following flame colour with their descriptions.
1. Apple green a. Potassium
2. Brick red b. Barium
3. Violet c. Strontium
4. Crimson red d. Calcium
Answer
D. 1-b,2-d,3-a,4-c
33
What is the purpose of the Q-test in data analysis ?
Answer
B. detect outliers in a dataset
34
Identify the correct statements regarding complexometric titrations.
I. EdTA forms stable complexes with most metal ions.
II. The indicator used changes color when it binds to metal ions.
III. EdTA titrations are unaffected by pH changes.
Answer
B. Only I and II
35
Consider a compound C8H10O2 labelled as compound P, which shows optical activity.
Upon reaction with H2/Pd–C, it yields an achiral compound Q with the formula C8H12O2.
Additionally, when compound P undergoes ozonolysis, it produces two compounds :
an optically active aldehyde R and an achiral ketone S. Which of the following could
represent the structure of compound P ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
36
The inductive effect in organic compounds is primarily due to
Answer
C. Polarization of σ-bonds due to electronegativity differences
37
Which of the following carbocations is the most stable ?
Answer
D. Tertiary butyl carbocation (
38
A compound C with molecular formula C5H10O2 shows the following spectral data :
• IR Spectrum : Strong absorption at 1730 cm–1 and a broad absorption between
2500–3300 cm–1.
• uV Spectrum : No significant absorption above 200 nm.
• 1H NMr Spectrum : Shows a quartet at 4.1 ppm (2H, J=7.0 Hz), a triplet at
1.3 ppm (3H), and a broad singlet at 11.0 ppm (1H).
13
• C NMr Spectrum : Shows four signals, with two of them at 170 ppm and 60 ppm.
Based on this data, what is the most likely structure of compound C ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
39
Which type of reaction mechanism is followed in the conversion of tert-butyl chloride
Answer
A. SN1
40
The absolute configuration of a chiral centre in a molecule is assigned as R or S based on
Answer
B. The clockwise or counterclockwise arrangement of substituents according to
Cahn-Ingold-Prelog rules
41
Which of the following would act as the strongest nucleophile in a protic solvent ?
Answer
D. CH3O–
42
Which of the following statements correctly describes the Wurtz reaction ?
Answer
C. The use of sodium metal in the reaction facilitates the coupling of two alkyl halides
to form a higher alkane.
43
According to Baeyer’s strain theory, which of the following statements about cycloalkanes
is most accurate regarding their stability and strain ?
Answer
B. Cyclobutane, while having some angle strain, can adopt at non-planar conformation
that alleviates some torsional strain.
44
Which of the following statements is true regarding the E1 mechanism ?
Answer
B. It occurs in two steps : formation of a carbocation and then deprotonation.
45
In a laboratory synthesis, a primary amine RNH2 is treated with excess bromine and
sodium hydroxide to produce an alkene via the Hofmann elimination reaction. Which
of the following statements correctly describes the outcome of this reaction ?
Answer
C. The reaction results in the formation of a quaternary ammonium salt as an
intermediate, which then undergoes dehydrohalogenation.
46
In the hydration of alkenes, if water is added in accordance with markovnikov’s rule,
which of the following products is formed from propene
Answer
Question Cancelled
47
In the diels-Alder reaction, the diene component must be in which conformation for the
reaction to occur effectively ?
Answer
C. S-cis
48
Which of the following statements are correct ?
i. Intramolecular Hydrogen bonding exists in ortho-nitro phenol but not in meta and
para-nitro phenols.
ii. due to intermolecular H-bond simple phenols exist as associated molecules with
higher boiling point.
iii. The boiling point of o-nitrophenol is lower compared to its meta and para isomers.
Answer
D. i, ii and iii
49
Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of acidity.
a. b.
c. d.
Answer
C. d < b < a < c
50
Arrange the following amino acids in the decreasing order of their basicity.
a. b. c.
Answer
Question Cancelled
51
The amine ‘y’ that reacts with p-toluene sulphonyl chloride in the above reaction can be
Answer
D. (CH₃)₂NH
52
When vapours of secondary alcohols are passed over copper at a very high temperature
of 300°C, the product formed due to dehydrogenation is
Answer
C. Ketone
53
Identify the reagent ‘y’ in the following conversion :
Answer
A. CHCl3 / Alc. KOH
54
Walden inversion process is connected with which of these reactions ?
Answer
B. SN2
55
Hantzsch synthesis for the preparation of pyridine involves the condensation of
β – dicarbonyl compound with an
Answer
C. Aldehyde and NH3
56
Which among the following statements is false ?
a. SN2 process is suppressed in the presence of polar aprotic solvent.
b. The reactivity rate of both SN1 and SN2 reactions of alkyl halides is in the order
RI > RBr > RCI > RI.
Answer
C. a and b
57
Identify the organic synthesis below.
Answer
B. Friedlander’s synthesis
58
Among these 3 heterocyclic compounds, which is the correct order of aromaticity ?
Answer
A. Thiophene > Pyrrole > Furan
59
Formaldehyde reacts with the Grignard reagent - methyl magnesium iodide – to form
Answer
B. Ethyl alcohol
60
Predict the product of the following reaction: cyclohexanone + isobutylamine, (CH₃)₂CHCH₂NH₂ →
Answer
A. Cyclohexane ring with an exocyclic C=N–CH₂CH(CH₃)₂ imine group
61
Which of the following product is formed when cyclohexanone undergoes Baeyer-Villiger
oxidation ?
Answer
A. Caprolactone
62
In a mixed Cannizzaro reaction involving benzaldehyde and formaldehyde, which of
the following will be the major products ?
Answer
B. Benzyl alcohol and formic acid
63
What is the major product formed when ethyl acetate is refluxed with sodium ethoxide
in ethanol, followed by acidification ?
Answer
D. Ethyl acetoacetate
64
What is A ?
Answer
D. Citric acid
65
What type of compound is typically formed as the product of the Reformatsky
reaction ?
Answer
B. β-hydroxy ester
66
Which of the following statements about the compressibility factor Z is true ?
Answer
C. Z > 1 indicates that the gas is less compressible than the ideal gas.
67
Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between the
viscosity of a gas and temperature ?
Answer
C. The viscosity of a gas increases with increasing temperature.
68
What is the significance of the temperature 155 K for oxygen gas ?
Answer
C. It is the critical temperature of oxygen, above which it cannot be liquefied
regardless of pressure.
69
Which of the following instruments is commonly used to measure surface tension ?
Answer
B. Stalagmometer
70
The miller indices for a plane with intercepts along the axes at 2a, 3b and 2c are
1 1 1
Answer
D. (323)
2 3 2
71
Number of atoms present in a body centred cubic
Answer
B. cc) unit cell
72
The solubility product Ksp of a sparingly soluble salt A2B is 4×10 –9. The molar solubility
of the salt is ________ mol l–1.
Answer
C. 1×10 –
73
pKa of an acid HA is 3.82. What will be the ratio of concentration of acid HA to
concentration of A– ions to have a solution with pH 4.82 ?
Answer
D. 1 :
74
For the reaction 4NO2(g) + O2(g) 2N2O5(g), which of the following is true ?
Answer
A. Kp < Kc
75
The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A at 298 K is 50 mbar. When a solution B is
prepared in A at the same temperature, the vapour pressure is found to be 25 mbar.
The mole fraction of A in solution is
Answer
C. 0.5
76
The freezing point of a solvent A was lowered by 0.55 °C on dissolving 2 g of a solute
B in 100 g of A. The molar mass of solute B is (Given Kf = 5.5 K Kg mol–1)
Answer
B. 200
77
The boiling points of 0.0001 m solution of BaCl2 and 0.0001 m solution of AICI3 in same
solvent are t1 °C and t2 °C respectively. Identify the correct relation.
Answer
B. t2 > t1
78
For a chemical reaction 2X2(g) + 5y2(g)→ 2X2y5(g) at 27 °C, the difference between
∆H and ∆U is Z. The ratio Z/R =
Answer
B. – 1500
79
Given that,
i) C + O2 → CO2 ∆H0 = – x kJ
ii) 2CO + O2 → 2CO2 ∆H0 = – y kJ
The enthalpy of formation of CO will be
Answer
A. (y – 2x)/2
80
1 mol of an ideal gas at 27 °C is expanded reversibly from 3 l to 30 l. The entropy
change is (R = 2 cal K–1 mol–1)
Answer
B. 4.6
81
The work done during the expansion of an ideal gas from 2 × 10 –3 l to 1 × 10 – 2 l at
constant pressure of 1 × 105 Nm–2 is
Answer
Question Cancelled
82
If the bond energy of N-H bond = x cal mol–1, the change in internal energy in the
following reaction is
NH3(g) → N(g) + 3H(g)
Answer
C. 3x cal
83
A substance has a heat capacity of 200 J/°C. If 2 kJ of heat is added to this substance,
what will be the increase in temperatures ?
Answer
B. 10
84
The unit of rate constant in a zero order reaction is
Answer
A. mol l–1 sec–1
85
The minimum amount of energy that the reacting molecules should possess to
produce effective collision is
Answer
C. Threshold energy
86
The reaction 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g) is first order with respect to N2O5, which of
the following graphs would yield a straight line ?
Answer
D. log(PN2O5) vs time with negative slope
87
The rate of reaction increases with increase in temperature. This is mainly due to
Answer
C. Increase in effective no. of molecules for collision
88
The unit of molar absorption coefficient is
Answer
A. l mol–1 cm–1
89
The half life of a reaction is halved as the initial concentration of the reactant is
doubled. What is the order of the reaction ?
Answer
B. 2
90
In the electrochemical reaction 2Fe3+
Answer
C. decreases the cell emf
91
A compound shows a proton NMR peak at 240 Hz down-field from the TMS peak in
a spectrometer operating at 60 mHz. What are the values of the chemical shifts in
d and t scale in ppm relative to TmS ?
Answer
D. None of the above
92
Which of the following statement is false ?
Answer
B. Specific conductance of a solution decreases with increase in concentration.
93
Hypsochromic shift is due to
Answer
A. A shift of absorption to shorter wavelength
94
Choose the false statement.
Answer
D. The more polar the bond the less IR radiation it will absorb.
95
The relation between de and d0, the two dissociation energies of an SHO is
Answer
Question Cancelled
96
The emf of daniel cell at 298 K is E1 Zn/ZnSO4
Answer
C. E1 > E2
97
From the list given below, which of the following elements can oxidise fluoride to fluorine ?
Answer
D. None of the above
98
Which statement is true ?
Answer
A. Antistokes lines have higher frequency than stokes lines.
99
Calculate the ionic strength of 0.2 molal K2SO4.
Answer
B. 0.6 m
100
Calculate the liquid junction potential at 25C between two solutions of HCl having
mean ionic activities of 0.01 and 0.001, respectively. The transference number of
H+ ion (t+) in HCl may be taken as 0.83.
Answer
D. 0.039 V
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