| Post Name | Laboratory Attender - Homoeopathy |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 004/2024 |
| Category Code | 200/2023 |
| Date of Test | 5 January 2024 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Bilirubinuria is not seen in :
Answer
C. Haemolytic jaundice
2
Name the condition where polymorphs are predominant in CSF :
Answer
B. Bacterial meningitis
3
Colour of urine in alkaptonuria is :
Answer
D. Brownish black
4
Which of the following is a carcinogen?
Answer
D. All of the above
5
Pick out the odd one from the following :
Answer
A. LMS
6
Occult blood in stool is positive in :
Answer
D. All of the above
7
The instrument used to measure sodium and potassium in serum sample :
Answer
A. Flame photometer
8
Urine crystal resembling fern-leaf shape :
Answer
B. Triple phosphate
9
Ion - Exchange resins are used to prepare :
Answer
A. Demineralised water
10
Which test detects ketone bodies in urine?
Answer
D. Legal’s test
11
Find out the incorrect statement regarding electrical hazard :
Answer
C. In case of electric fire, use water to extinguish the fire
12
Name the urine preservative which causes precipitation of crystals when used in large
amounts :
Answer
A. Boric acid
13
Which is an example for kinetic assay?
Answer
C. Estimation of SGPT
14
Curschmann’s spirals are seen in :
Answer
B. Sputum
15
Icto test is a tablet test to detect __________ in urine.
Answer
A. Bilirubin
16
Pick out the wrong statement :
Answer
D. Liquefaction time of semen is 90 minutes
004/2024 4 A
17
The preferred sample for testing hcG in urine is :
Answer
A. Morning sample
18
Find out the incorrect statement regarding 24-hour urine sample :
Answer
B. Collect the first morning urine sample in the container and note the time
19
Black tarry stool is seen in :
Answer
D. Bleeding from upper GIT
20
Which enzyme is measured in semen to evaluate the secretory function of prostate?
Answer
B. Acid phosphatase
21
Which statement is true in the case of post hepatic jaundice?
Answer
C. Only conjugated bilirubin is increased
22
The enzyme involved in Liver Function Test :
Answer
C. Alkaline phosphatase
23
Normal range of SGOT in blood is :
Answer
C. 5 – 45 IU/L
24
Malloy – Evelyn method is used for detecting :
Answer
A. Bilirubin
25
Which among the following lipoprotein has the lowest density?
Answer
B. Chylomicrons
26
Which among the following is not a cardiac marker?
Answer
D. ALT
27
Blood calcium level is increased in :
Answer
C. Bone tumor
28
The micromineral among the following is :
Answer
D. Zinc
29
Which of the following is used to detect prostatic carcinoma?
Answer
A. Acid phosphatase
30
The quality in a clinical laboratory is not influenced by :
Answer
D. None of the above
31
IV solutions can be sterilized by :
Answer
B. Membrane filter
32
Select incorrect statement from the following :
Answer
D. Antibiotic solutions are sterilized by Autoclave
33
Which is not a moist heat sterilization method?
Answer
A. Hot air oven
34
Who is the father of Modern Bacteriology?
Answer
B. Robert Koch
35
In a bacterial cell, infoldings of plasma membrane is called :
Answer
C. Mesosome
36
Which of the following is a spirochaete?
Answer
A. Leptospira
37
Increase in HbA1c level indicates :
Answer
C. Diabetes not under control
38
The most routine and specific test employed for blood glucose estimation:
Answer
B. GOD - POD method
39
Which is not a Renal function test?
Answer
A. C-peptide
40
Which is the end product of Purine metabolism?
Answer
C. Uric acid
41
Light emission reaction is employed in which assay :
Answer
D. CLIA
42
A solid medium which contains inhibiting substances that suppress the growth of unwanted
bacteria and enables the growth of required bacteria to form colonies is called as
Answer
B. Selective media
43
The transport media used for Gonococci is :
Answer
D. Stuart's medium
A 7 004/2024
44
In bacterial growth curve, the phase in which the cell division comes to half due to depletion
of nutrients and accumulation of toxic substances is :
Answer
D. Stationary phase
45
The routine laboratory test which is done to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other
Staphylococci is :
Answer
B. Coagulase test
46
Kovac’s reagent used in Indole test contains the following ingredients :
(i) Paradimethyl amino benzaldehyde
(ii) Con. HCL
(iii) Amyl alcohol
(iv) Methyl red
Answer
C. only (i), (ii) and (iii)
47
A competitive binding assay in which fixed amounts of antibody and radiolabelled antigen
react in the presence of unlabelled antigen is :
Answer
B. RIA
48
VDRL test for Syphillis is an example of :
Answer
A. Slide flocculation test
49
The only maternal immunoglobulin that is normally transported across the placenta and
provides natural immunity to newborn is :
Answer
C. IgG
50
The bacterial colonies which shows ‘Medusa head’ appearance on agar plates and ‘Inverted fir
tree’ appearance in gelatin stab culture :
Answer
B. Bacillus anthracis
51
The staining method used to demonstrate metachromatic granules in bacteria :
(i) Albert’s staining
(ii) Ponder’s staining
(iii) Neisser’s staining
(iv) Fontana’s staining
Answer
D. only (i), (ii) and (iii)
52
A semi solid media used to test the ability of bacteria to ferment mannitol and to identify
whether the bacteria is motile or non-motile is :
Answer
C. Mannitol motility medium
53
The causative agent of Weil’s disease :
Answer
C. Leptospira
54
The inclusion bodies detected in the impression smears of brain of infected animal in Rabies
Infection is :
Answer
B. Negri bodies
55
An oval shaped, colourless egg containing a segmented ovum with blastomeres surrounded by
a transparent shell membrane are the characteristic features of the egg of :
Answer
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
56
A cellphane swab used to collect the eggs of Enterobius vermicularis from the perianal
skin is :
Answer
C. NIH swab
57
The different forms of Plasmodium vivax detected in the peripheral blood of human being is :
(i) Trophozoites
(ii) Schizonts
(iii) Gametocytes
(iv) Ring form
Answer
D. only (i), (ii) and (iii)
A 9 004/2024
58
The quick method of staining of malarial parasite in thick films without fixation is :
Answer
B. Field’s stain
59
The appearance of nocturnally periodic Microfilariae in peripheral blood in the day time can
be induced by :
Answer
A. Hetrazan Provocative test
60
The following statements are true regarding the features of the cyst of Entamoeba
histolytica :
(i) Quadrinucleated
(ii) Thermal death point is 50ºC
(iii) Glycogen mass stains brown with Iodine
(iv) Chromatoid bodies are seen as refractile in saline preparations
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
61
The process which involves the grinding of metal from the knife edge using abrasive
substances to remove all nicks from the knife making it sharp and straight is called :
Answer
C. Honing
62
The process of polishing an already fairly sharp edge of the microtome knife is called :
Answer
D. Stropping
63
In Rotary Microtome, which of the following is correct?
Answer
B. Knife is fixed and tissue block is moving
64
In person having XY chromosome, the number of barrbody is :
Answer
C. Zero
65
In papanicolaou stain the counter stain used is :
Answer
D. OG-6
004/2024 10 A
66
___________ connects muscles to the bone.
Answer
B. Tendons
67
Sutures are :
Answer
A. Synarthrosis joints
68
Cavities of brain are called :
Answer
D. Ventricles
69
Breathing rate in humans are controlled by :
Answer
C. Medulla Oblongata
70
Kupffer cells are present in :
Answer
A. Liver
71
Class A glasswares used in a Laboratory are made of :
Answer
C. Borosilicate glass
72
Flame photometer is used for the detection of :
Answer
B. Alkali metals
73
Class A type fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving ____________ as fuel source.
Answer
D. Ordinary combustible materials
74
Fluid part of coagulated blood is called :
Answer
A. Serum
75
The mechanism of action of anticoagulant in light grey coloured vaccutainer tube is :
Answer
C. Both
76
Prolonged application of tourniquet causes elevation of :
Answer
D. All the above
77
Anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies is :
Answer
B. Trisodium citrate
78
Which blood cell produces antibodies?
Answer
C. B lymphocytes
79
The area of a square of RBC counting area of an Improved Neubauer counting chamber is :
Answer
C. 1/400 mm²
80
The granules of this blood cell contain heparin and histamine :
Answer
A. Basophil
81
Haematocrit value and RBC count are needed to calculate :
Answer
C. MCV
82
Microcytes and macrocytes in the same blood smear is called
Answer
A. Anisocytosis
83
Erythrocytopaenia can be seen in all of the following conditions except :
Answer
D. dehydration
004/2024 12 A
84
Which among the following is a platelet diluting fluid?
Answer
B. 1% ammonium oxalate
85
Stain used for reticulocyte count is :
Answer
C. Brillian Cresyl Blue
86
pH of Drabkin’s solution is:
Answer
B. 7.0 – 7.4
87
Following are all Romanowsky’s stain except :
Answer
D. Perl’s stain
88
Which is the internationally recommended method for haemoglobin estimation?
Answer
D. Cyan meth haemoglobin method
89
ESR is elevated in following diseases except :
Answer
A. osteo arthritis
90
Which tube is used for the determination of macro hematocrit?
Answer
B. Wintrobe’s tube
91
INR (International normalized ratio) is a calculation based on the result of
Answer
A. Prothrombin time
92
Anti haemophilic factor is :
Answer
C. coagulation factor VIII
93
Anticoagulant of choice for Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is :
Answer
D. 3.8% trisodium citrate
94
A person can receive blood only from a donor of his/her blood group if the blood group of the
person is :
Answer
D. O
95
Bombay blood group individuals may have the following antibodies except :
Answer
D. Anti. o
96
Colouring agent of Anti B anti serum is :
Answer
B. Acriflavin
97
‘A’ blood group of father and ‘B’ blood group of mother could have children with blood group :
Answer
C. A, AB, B, O
98
For patients having thrombocytopenia which blood component is transfused?
Answer
A. Platelet rich plasma
99
Which is not a phase of cross matching?
Answer
B. Globulin phase
100
In blood bank which colour coded label is used to identify B blood group blood bag?
Answer
B. Pink
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