| Post Name | Laboratory Attender - Homoeopathy |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 243/2023 |
| Category Code | 414/2022 |
| Date of Test | 20 December 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Identify the hazard symbol.
Answer
C. Biological hazard
2
As part of biomedical waste segregation yellow coloured non-chlorinated containers
are used to collect
Answer
A. Blood and body fluids
3
Which one of the following is an accreditation agency for testing and calibration
laboratories in India ?
Answer
B. NABl
4
A low fixed specific gravity of Urine is an indication for
Answer
C. Chronic renal failure
5
Fruity odour in urine specifically indicate presence of
Answer
C. Ketone bodies
6
Bence – Jones Proteins are
Answer
B. Immunoglobulin
7
Normally there is no presence of glucose in urine sample. What is the renal threshold
for glucose ?
Answer
D. 180 mg%
8
Hay’s test is done in urine sample for the detection of
Answer
A. Sodium taurocholate
9
In obstructive jaundice
Answer
A. Urine conjugated bilirubin is high and urobilinogen is decreased
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
C. and
11
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) is hormone that is released by placenta can
be detected in
Answer
B. Urine and blood sample
12
Curschmann’s spirals are seen in sputum in
Answer
A. Bronchial Asthma
13
Which is the most preferred concentration method for parasites in faecal sample ?
Answer
C. Formal ether concentration technique
14
Which one of the following gives false negative results with Benzidine test for Occult
blood ?
Answer
D. Intake of large amount of Vitamin C
15
Necrozoospermia is referred to which condition ?
Answer
C. Presence of non-viable and non-motile sperm
16
Which sugar is present in semen sample ?
Answer
B. Fructose
17
Spider web coagulam or cobweb is usually seen in CSF in cases of
Answer
A. Tuberculous meningitis
18
New glassware is soaked in 1% HCI solution and washed thoroughly, this is done
because
Answer
C. To remove the mild alkalinity in the glassware
19
diffraction grating is used in spectrophotometer for
Answer
C. For providing narrower wavelength monochromatic light
20
For detection of elemental analysis, we use
Answer
D. All of the above
21
Glucose Challenge Test (GCT) is done in Pregnant ladies at
Answer
B. 24 – 28 weeks of Gestation
22
Fasting plasma Glucose concentration exceeding ___________ mg/dl in more than
one occasion is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus.
Answer
C. 126
23
Ideal Exogenous marker for GFR to assess kidney function
Answer
A. Inulin
24
Which of the following is true for both Kidney and liver disease ?
Answer
B. Serum Albumin is decreased
25
Tests based on detoxication function of liver include
Answer
C. Hippuric acid test
26
Negative Thymol Turbidity and Positive Jirgl’s Flocculation test is seen in
Answer
D. Obstructive Jaundice
27
ln the colon by action of enzyme systems of intestinal microorganisms two Vinyl
groups of Bilirubin are reduced to Ethyl groups to form
Answer
B. mesobilirubin
28
Find the right combination.
i. Increased amount of unconjugated Bilirubin
ii. Tumour in head of pancreas
iii. Incomplete blood transfusion
iv. dark brown colour of faeces
v. malaria
Answer
C. i, iv, v and iii
29
Hypercholesterolemia is seen when serum cholesterol increases above
Answer
A. 240 mg/dl
30
Serum Amylase test is done for the diagnosis of
Answer
B. Pancreatitis
31
CA 125 is a tumour marker for
Answer
A. Ovarian cancer
32
Hypernatremia is seen in
Answer
D. Cushing’s disease
33
milk ejection Hormone
Answer
C. Oxytocin
34
Closeness of result to the true value refers to
Answer
D. Accuracy
35
Number of Test Results produced per Hour in an Automated machine is known as
Answer
B. Throughput
36
The person having no signs and symptoms of disease and can infect another person
is called Carrier. If a carrier acquires infection from another carrier the person is
called
Answer
A. Paradoxical Carrier
37
Which of the following Bacteria is motile with Endoflagella ?
Answer
C. leptospira
38
Plasmids in bacteria
Answer
D. All of the above
39
Autoclave is used for the sterilization of all except
Answer
A. Grease
40
Find the right pair.
i. l J medium
ii. Sugar medium
iii. Tyndallization
iv. Holder method
v. Inspissation
Answer
D. ii and iii
41
Endoscope is sterilized using
Answer
B. Glutaraldehyde
42
Concentration of Agar in culture broth is
Answer
C. 0%
43
In Fluid medium, bacterial growth detected by
Answer
D. All of these
44
Which of the following is low selective and differential medium ?
Answer
B. macConkey agar
45
Which of the following used to detect bacterial motility ?
Answer
D. All of these
46
___________ is act as mordant in Ziehl Neelsen staining.
Answer
C. Phenol
47
Antibody that cross placenta give protection, to baby after birth till its own immunity
begins to develop
Answer
A. IgG
48
The strength of binding of Antigen with Antibody is
Answer
A. Avidity
49
Widal Test is used for diagnosis of
Answer
A. Typhoid
50
The most common cause of Urinary Tract Infection is
Answer
B. E.Coli
51
A spider web clot formed in CSF specimen after standing
Answer
B. Tuberculous meningitis
52
Sputum smear is prepared by
Answer
C. Blood muco purulent
53
Antimicrobial sensitivity testing most helpful for
Answer
C. Selecting effective antimicrobial drug
54
Viruses are
Answer
D. All of these
55
A vector is an organism act as
Answer
D. All of these
56
True about thick blood smear examination
Answer
A. 50 times more chance to detect parasites
57
malaria caused by
Answer
A. Plasmodium
58
Ideal rapid water soluble stain for thick blood smear examination
Answer
B. JSB
59
Lab diagnosis of filariasis done by
Answer
D. All of these
60
Ova of Enterobius characterised by
Answer
D. All of these
61
Fixation plays important role in
Answer
D. All of these
62
Which of the following is not a property of formalin as a fixative ?
Answer
B. A pleasant smell
63
Which is the special procedure required before tissue processing for tissues like
teeth or bones ?
Answer
C. Decalcification
64
Name the chemical which is not included in the PAP staining procedure.
Answer
B. methylene Blue
65
In FNAC the letter ‘N’ stands for
Answer
C. Needle
66
Among the cell organelles protein synthesis is performed by
Answer
D. Ribosomes
67
Study about tissues is called
Answer
A. Histology
68
The hormone TSH is produced by
Answer
D. Pituitary gland
69
The instrument used to measure the electrical activity of Heart is
Answer
B. Electrocardiograph
70
Pulse can be measured from
Answer
D. All of the above
71
Glass Pipets with a long narrow tip is called
Answer
B. Pasteur pipets
72
Solution used in calorimeter with all reagents and without sample to be tested are
called
Answer
C. Blank
73
Equipment flame photometer is used to measure
Answer
B. Electrolytes
74
Which of the following blood cell having maximum weight ?
Answer
D. Red blood cell
75
Example for a natural anticoagulant
Answer
A. Heparin
76
Needles used to collect blood from infants are with a Gauge of
Answer
C. 23
77
Which of the protein present in plasma and not in serum ?
Answer
D. Fibrinogen
78
Cells that increase during allergy are
Answer
C. Eosinophils
79
Which is the commonly used anticoagulant for ESR estimation by Westergren’s
method ?
Answer
A. Trisodium citrate
80
When WBCs are counted manually by Tuerk’s reagent, blood is diluted by ratio
Answer
C. 1 : 20
81
New methylene blue stain is used for staining which type of blood cells ?
Answer
B. Reticulocytes
82
The normal total platelet count in adult is
Answer
A. 1.5 – 4.5 lakhs/cu mm of blood
83
Which test does not monitor a patient’s coagulation mechanism ?
Answer
D. ACTH
84
The cellular components of buffy coat are
Answer
B. WBCs and Platelets
85
The speed and the time selected for PCV test by Wintrobe’s method
Answer
A. 3000 RPm and 30 minutes
86
lymphocytes normally comprise _____________ % of the total WBCs.
Answer
C. 40 %
87
What cell shape is most commonly associated with increased mCHC ?
Answer
D. Spherocyte
88
Parasitic infections and allergic reactions cause an increase in
Answer
B. Eosinophils
89
The most popular method of haemoglobin estimation is
Answer
D. Cyanmeth haemoglobin method
90
The solvent in leishman’s stain is
Answer
B. Acetone free methyl alcohol
91
For coagulation studies, blood is mixed with the anticoagulant in the ratio of
Answer
D. 9 : 1
92
All of the following are uses of WBC pipette except
Answer
C. Platelet count
93
The factor that increases the ESR is
Answer
A. Exposure to sunlight
94
Blood group antigen present on the surface of
Answer
A. RBC
95
If Anti A and Anti B antibodies are seen in a person, then what is the blood group of
that person ?
Answer
C. O
96
The anticoagulant used in blood bag is
Answer
B. CPdA
97
Bombay Blood group can be detected by
Answer
D. Reverse Grouping
98
In major cross matching technique
Answer
B. donor cells are mixed with Patient’s serum
99
Which one of the following is transfusion transmitted infection ?
Answer
D. All of the above
100
The colour of Anti AB serum is
Answer
Question Cancelled
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