| Post Name | Laboratory Technician Gr II/ Laboratory Assistant Gr II 614/2024 |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 151/2025 |
| Category Code | 614/2024 |
| Date of Test | 18 November 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Delafield hematoxylin contains all chemicals except :
Answer
A. Formalin
2
If the magnification of the objective of the microscope is 10X and eye piece magnification
is 10X, then the total magnification is :
Answer
C. 100X
3
The Relative Centrifugal Force (RCF or g) of a centrifuge can be calculated using the
following parameters:
(i) rpm
(ii) Radius
(iii) Length
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
4
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to concentration of ova
in the faecal sample using floatation or sedimentation techniques?
Answer
D. Flotation technique used in a parasitology laboratory is based on the use of
solutions with lower specific gravity than that of parasitic ova.
5
Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
Answer
D. The ELISA test results
6
Find the INCORRECT statement:
Answer
B. Peripheral blood smears for demonstration of haemoprotozoans are fixed
using formalin solution
7
Which among the following statement is WRONG?
Answer
D. vercoat/overall) should be worn over normal clothing to
protect the major part of the body form splashes, droplets of liquids
containing microorganisms and hazardous chemicals.
8
Find the INCORRECT statement:
Answer
D. Lower relative humidity in the tropical countries make increased life for
electronic balances.
9
One molar (1M) solution of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) contains _________ grams of
NaOH per liter.
Answer
B. 40 g
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
B. ,
11
In faecal flotation procedure most of the nematode parasite eggs float in solution due to:
Answer
D. Both
12
Thin walled ellipsoidal eggs containing an embryo in the morula stage of development is
found in the fresh faeces of domestic animals :
Answer
A. Strongyle egg
13
Percentage of formalin reagent used in the Knott test to detect and differentiate
microfilaria is :
Answer
A. 2%
14
Operculated unembryonnated ova observed in the faecal sample of dog infected with:
Answer
A. Dibothriocephalus latus
15
Eggs with characteristic square or triangular shape with pyriform apparatus inside are
seen during faecal sample examination of cattle infected with :
Answer
C. Both
16
Wet film examination of blood is done to detect:
Answer
B. Microfilaria
17
Diagnostic method used to differentiate species of parasite whose egg cannot be
distinguished by faecal sample examination:
Answer
D. Faecal culture
18
Excellent mounting medium for making permanent preparation of helminth specimens:
Answer
B. Canada balsam
19
In vitro assays for detection of resistance to anthelmintics include:
Answer
A. Egg hatch Assay (EHA)
20
An organism/host in which sexual reproduction of a parasite occurs or sexually mature
stage of the parasite is found is called:
Answer
A. Definitive host
21
Which mouthpart is not a feature of flies?
Answer
A. Pedipalp
22
Among the following diseases that cannot be transmitted by housefly:
Answer
D. Babesiosis
23
Xenodiagnosis is used for the diagnosis of chagas disease transmitted by:
Answer
B. Reduvid bug
24
Mite with elongate tapering body:
Answer
C. Demodex spp.
25
Ticks with enamel-like areas on the body:
Answer
A. Amblyomma spp.
26
Reagent used for shipping of mites for identification:
Answer
D. 70% alcohol
27
Name the biological vector of plague:
Answer
A. Rat flea
28
Which statement is correct regarding the identification of brown dog tick?
Answer
B. Basis capitulum is hexagonal and festoons present
29
Name the correct statement:
Answer
D. All the above
30
The disease caused by chigger mite in humans:
Answer
A. Scrub typhus
31
Halter shaped gamonts are seen in the RBCs of ___________ infection in pigeons.
Answer
A. Haemoproteus columbae
32
Flagellate protozoan present extracellularly in the blood smear of cattle is:
Answer
B. Trypanosoma evansi
33
Signet ring shaped organisms are present in the RBCs of ___________ infection in
canines.
Answer
B. Babesia gibsoni
34
___________ is the flagellated protozoan often recovered from the faeces of dogs and cats
with diarrhoea.
Answer
B. Giardia sp.
35
Pear shaped organisms lying in pairs in erythrocytes of cattle:
Answer
C. Babesia bigemina
36
Lumen dwelling flagellates:
Answer
D. All of the above
37
Coccidia oocyst with four sporozoites without any sporocyst is observed in:
Answer
B. Cryptosporidium parvum
38
Iodine staining is used for the diagnosis of:
Answer
A. Entamoeba histolytica
39
Tissue cyst forming apicompexan parasites:
Answer
C. Both
40
Single celled eukaryotic organisms:
Answer
A. Protozoa
41
Which of the anticoagulant is most appropriate for blood gas estimation?
Answer
A. Heparin
42
Neutrophilia with shift to the left indicates:
Answer
B. Increase in immature neutrophils
43
Which of the following are classified as granulocytes in peripheral blood?
Answer
A. Neutrophils, Eosinophils and Basophils
44
The erythrocytic index calculated by the formula:
Haematocrit
× 10
RBC count
Answer
A. MCV
45
Which of the following parameters is not typically measured by a hematology analyzer?
Answer
C. Serum glucose level
46
Identify the correctly matched pair of parameters with their units:
Answer
C. Haemoglobin : g/dL
47
Species showing nucleated erythrocytes in peripheral blood:
Answer
D. Chicken
48
Variation in the shape of erythrocytes is termed:
Answer
B. Poikilocytosis
49
Optimum pH for Romanowsky staining approximately:
Answer
C. 6.8-7.2
50
The Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW) in a Complete Blood Count
Answer
B. Variation in size of red blood cells
51
Which of the following is not a liver function test (LFT)?
Answer
D. Serum creatinine estimation
52
Assertion
Answer
A. : Struvite crystal is common in urolithiasis in canines
Reason [R] : The alkaline pH during urinary tract infection favours formation of
struvite crystals.
53
Bromothymol blue test gives colour change from blue to green in mastitic milk due to :
Answer
B. Higher pH of mastitic milk
54
Assertion
Answer
C. [A] is true but [R] is false
55
Bilirubin can appear in urine only when :
Answer
B. It is conjugated and water-soluble
56
The milk becomes gelatinous in mastitis because of:
Answer
C. Increased alkalinity and increased leucocyte count
57
Assertion
Answer
A. : On standing at room temperature, urine becomes more alkaline.
Reason [R] : Urea is broken down by bacteria into ammonia.
58
The urine preservative that interferes with glucose estimation is:
Answer
C. Formalin
59
Which vitamin is necessary for intestinal absorption of calcium?
Answer
C. Vitamin D
60
The test to detect Bence Jones Proteinuria is:
Answer
B. Heat Precipitation Test
61
The most common Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) used in histopathology
laboratory is/are:
(i) Goggles
(ii) Aprons
(iii) Gloves
(iv) Respirators
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
151/2025 11 A
62
Some substances will re-remit the light with a longer wavelength which when
illuminated by light of a certain wavelength is used in which type of microscopy?
Answer
D. Fluorescence Microscopy
63
Which of the following is a bluing agent?
Answer
D. All
64
Which of the following is a common fixative used in brain impression smear used for
Rabies detection?
Answer
B. Cold acetone
65
Indications for cytopathology examinations include:
(i) Diagnosis of inflammation
(ii) Diagnosis of infections
(iii) Diagnosis of tumours
(iv) Grading of tumours
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
66
Which of the following is a basic stain?
Answer
C. Both
67
Which of the following is a section adhesive used in glass slide for paraffin tissue section
preparation?
Answer
A. Poly L Lysine
68
The cause/s of sections rolls into a coil instead of remaining flat on knife edge?
(i) Blade dull
(ii) Rake angle too small
(iii) Section too thin
Considering the above statements, which one is correct?
Answer
A. (i) and (ii) are correct
69
The addition of which chemical helps to improve the quality of eosin staining?
Answer
B. Acetic acid
70
Oxidizing chemical agent used in Harri’s hematoxylin?
Answer
B. Mercuric oxide
71
The holding temperature – time combination for sterilization of glassware in a hot air
oven is:
Answer
C. 160°C for 120 min
72
Which among the following is an indicator for checking efficacy of moist heat
sterilization?
Answer
B. Spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus
73
Which among the following microscopy uses scattered light for its working?
Answer
A. Dark field microscopy
74
Which among the following is a compound stain?
Answer
C. Giemsa stain
75
The function of the mordant in Gram’s staining is
(i) to impart colour to the specimen
(ii) to help in binding or fixing the stain to the specimen
(iii) to act as the counterstain
Answer
A. Only (ii) is correct
76
Which among the following is not an example of an enriched media?
Answer
D. Nutrient agar
77
The level of incorporation of agar in solid bacteriological media is usually:
Answer
C. 1.5 to 2.0%
78
Serum is sterilized by which of the following methods?
Answer
A. By filtration
79
The standard agar medium that is widely used for performing antibiotic sensitivity
testing by Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion method is:
Answer
B. Mueller Hinton agar
80
Which of the following is not true about handling laboratory animals?
Answer
D. Laboratory animals are not capable of causing injury to handlers
81
Which of the following is not a feature of innate immunity?
Answer
C. Memory formation
82
Which of the following statements regarding rabies diagnosis in the laboratory are
correct?
Statements:
(1) The gold standard for postmortem rabies diagnosis in animals is the direct
fluorescent antibody test on brain tissue.
(2) Blood samples are used for confirming active rabies infection.
(3) RT-PCR can be used for detecting rabies viral RNA in cerebrospinal fluid.
(4) Serological tests alone are sufficient for definitive rabies diagnosis in animals
Answer
A. Only (1) and (3)
83
Which of the following is the gold standard serologic confirmatory test used for
diagnosing leptospirosis in labs?
Answer
B. Microscopic Agglutination Test
84
Assertion
Answer
D. [A] is true, but [R] is false
85
Which PCR step involves heating the DNA to separate the two strands?
Answer
C. Denaturation
86
If serum appears pink or red after centrifugation, the most likely reason is:
Answer
B. Hemolysis
87
Which of the following statements regarding handlig of culture media are correct?
(1) Media should be sterilized at 121°C for 15 minutes
(2) Overheating can cause breakdown of agar
(3) Pouring plates should be done aseptically
(4) pH should be adjusted after autoclaving
Answer
A. (1), (2) and (3) are correct
88
Assertion
Answer
B. Both
89
The principle of ELISA is based on:
Answer
C. Antigen-antibody interaction
90
The term “ringworm” refers to which type of fungal infection?
Answer
D. Cutaneous mycosis
91
While processing of milk, alkaline phosphatase test is used to detect the efficiency of:
Answer
B. Pasteurization
92
Identify one of the practices involved in HACCP :
Answer
C. Good manufacturing practices
93
At ante mortem inspection, animal affixed the tag ‘S’ has to be directed to the
Answer
C. Isolation block
94
Which among these organs are known as sweetbread?
Answer
D. Pancreas
95
Who is known as “Father of meat inspection”?
Answer
B. Robert Von Ostertag
96
Folic acid is rich in which among the food items?
Answer
B. Beef liver
97
Identify the below mentioned biochemical test to differentiate Escherichia.coli and
Enterobacter aerogenes:
Answer
D. IMViC
98
In which substance is adulteration detected using the Baudouin test?
Answer
C. Ghee
99
National Dairy Development Board is located at:
Answer
C. Anand
100
Test which can be done to detect starch adulterant in butter:
Answer
B. Adding iodine solution
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