| Post Name | LAW OFFICER (PART I AND PART II) - KERALA STATE CO - OPERATIVE BANK LTD |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 031/2019/OL |
| Category Code | 577/2017 |
| Date of Test | 1 August 2019 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Identify the tense form of the underlined phrase: "That bridge has stood there for 800 years."(1 mark)
Answer
Question Cancelled
2
Identify the correct spelling (1 mark)
Answer
A. Accustom
3
Identify the word in which the letter 'l' is silent. (1 mark)
Answer
D. Palm
4
Plural of the word "proof" is: (1 mark)
Answer
B. Proofs
5
Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from those given below: "Ramu----------- on the loose floor tiles." (1 mark)
Answer
B. stumbled
6
Complete the saying: "------------------- dogs seldom bite." (1 mark)
Answer
A. Barking
7
Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles: "Our boss is ---- Hitler in ---- office." (1 mark)
Answer
D. a, the
8
Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from those give below: "The German football team ----- congratulated for its performance." (1 mark)
Answer
A. was
9
Identify the word which means the same as the underlined phrase: "The marriage was put off." (1 mark)
Answer
C. postponed
10
Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from those given below: "He was ------- by her death." (1 mark)
Answer
A. affected
11
Name the author of the book, 'Udyana Virunnu.' (1 mark)
Answer
B. K.P.Karuppan
12
The 'Sahodaran Prize' is given for: (1 mark)
Answer
D. Journalism
13
Who propagated the concept of 'Nirgunopasana'? (1 mark)
Answer
C. Vagh bhatananda
14
'Jeevitam Oru Samaram' is the autobiography of: (1 mark)
Answer
D. Akkamma Cheriyan
15
Identify the winner of the first world cup football held in 1930: (1 mark)
Answer
C. Uruguay
16
Name the microfinance scheme started by the Cooperation department of Kerala in association with the Kudumbasree Mission: (1 mark)
Answer
C. Muttathe Mulla
17
India borrowed the idea of Judicial review from the constitution of: (1 mark)
Answer
A. USA
18
Name the musical instrument associated with Bismillah khan:
Answer
D. Shehnai
19
Identify the country where the meeting between the US President Donald Trump and North Korean Leader Kim Jong-Un was held: (1 mark)
Answer
B. Singapore
20
The Programme initiated by the food safety wing of the Kerala State to seize formalin-laced fish is called: (1 mark)
Answer
A. Operation Sagar Rani
21
The Union Council of Ministers is Collectively Responsible to ------------- (1 mark)
Answer
B. The Lok Sabha
22
Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a ---------- (1 mark)
Answer
A. Union of States
23
Article 226 of the Constitution provides the power to issue Writs to---------- (1 mark)
Answer
B. The High Courts
24
Which Constitutional Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the Panchayat Raj Institutions in villages? (1 mark)
Answer
C. Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992
25
Which among the following is a constitutional body? (1 mark)
Answer
A. National Commission for Schedule Caste
26
Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament? (1 mark)
Answer
D. The Speaker of Loksabha
27
Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India? (1 mark)
Answer
B. Presidential form of Government
28
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on --------- (1 mark)
Answer
D. 26 November, 1949
29
Whose decision is final if a question arises as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill? (1 mark)
Answer
C. Speaker of Loksabha
30
Which Parliamentary Committee examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General on spending of public money by the government? (1 mark)
Answer
A. Public Accounts Committee
31
Among the following which is not a suit of civil nature
Answer
C. Suit for upholding dignity or honour
32
Which among the following is not an essential condition for applying Rule of Res Judicata
Answer
C. Matter in issue in the former suit is collaterally and incidentally in issue in the subsequent case.
33
Suits for Torts to person or movable property cannot be filed in court in whose jurisdiction
Answer
C. Plaintiff resides or works for gain
34
For filing a 'Representative suit' these conditions is not essential.
Answer
B. Parties should belong to same district
35
A plaint need not contain
Answer
D. Law and Evidence relied upon by plaintiff
36
Power of the Supreme Court to transfer cases under civil procedure code is dealt in this section
Answer
B. Sec 25
37
Section of Civil Procedure Code dealing with 'service of summons' to defendants
Answer
D. Sec 27
38
For a suit to be filed against government under CPC notice is essential under
Answer
B. Sec 80
39
Temporary injunctions are issued by Civil Court under
Answer
C. Order 39 rules 1-5
40
In an interpleader Suit the real dispute between
Answer
A. Defendant only plaintiff is not interested
41
Right to Appeal is a
Answer
D. Statutory right
42
There is no right to appeal against
Answer
C. Consent decree
43
Place of suing with respect to immovable property situated within the jurisdiction of different courts are contained in
Answer
B. Sec 17
44
In execution of a decree for the maintenance under C.P.C, the extent to which the salary of a person can be attached is
Answer
C. One third of salary
45
Pleadings under civil procedure means
Answer
C. Plain and written statement
46
The principle of res gestae is included in Indian Evidence Act in
Answer
B. Sec 6
47
Indian Evidence Act has adopted the rule of
Answer
C. combination of legal and logical relevancy
48
The principle of 'Alibi' is included as a relevant fact under Indian Evidence Act in
Answer
B. Sec 11
49
Confession made to a police officer is
Answer
D. inadmissible except in cases covered by sec 27
50
Mark the statement which is false:
Answer
D. Dying declaration given to police officer is invalid
51
Secondary evidence is defined in Indian Evidence Act in
Answer
A. Sec 63
52
Examination after cross examination of a witness by the party who called him is called
Answer
C. Re-examination
53
'Voir dire' test relates to examination of
Answer
C. Child witness
54
Maximum sentence that can be passed by Assistant Sessions Judge
Answer
C. Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine
55
Which among the following statement is 'false'
Answer
C. A private person can arrest any person seen in suspicious position
56
Inquiry for the purpose of Criminal Procedure Code is conducted by
Answer
B. Court
57
Under the code of Criminal Procedure the authority who is authorised to remove public nuisance
Answer
D. Executive magistrate
58
The provision for anticipatory bail is provided in the Criminal Procedure code under
Answer
B. Sec 438
59
An offence which is not triable summarily
Answer
D. Grievous hurt under Sec 320 IPC
60
Under Sec 227 CrPC an accused can be discharged in a sessions case
Answer
D. Before framing the charge
61
Section 2(1)(b) of SARFAESI Act provides that the net owned fund of an asset reconstruction company should:
Answer
B. Not be less than two crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify
62
Which of the following is not a ground for cancellation of certificate of registration granted to an asset reconstruction company by Reserve Bank of India:
Answer
D. When the ARC has incurred loss for a year
63
Before which court/ tribunal an asset reconstruction company can file an application for enforcement of its security interest:
Answer
A. Debt Recovery Tribunal
64
What is the time limit within which the secured creditor can initiate an action for enforcement of security:
Answer
C. If the liability is not discharged within 60 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor
65
When does an asset become non performing asset:
Answer
B. When the instalments and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 90 days
66
Which of the following is not an essential ingredient to initiate action for enforcement of security under the SARFAESI Act:
Answer
D. The security interest must be a least Rs.20,000
67
Which of the following does not fall under financial asset as per the SARFAESI Act:
Answer
D. Prepaid expenses undertaken with respect to a movable or immovable property
68
What can a secured creditor do if his dues are not fully satisfied with the sale proceeds of the secured asset:
Answer
B. He can proceed against the debtor by filing an application before Debt Recovery Tribunal
69
What is the time limit within which any person aggrieved by any measure taken by secured creditors can file an application to the Debt Recovery Tribunal:
Answer
C. Within 45 days from the date on which such measure had been taken
70
Which court shall try offences punishable under the SARFAESI Act:
Answer
C. A Court not inferior to that of Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of First Class
71
The Limitation Act, 1963 applies to
Answer
A. the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
72
Under section 2(1) of Limitation Act suit includes
Answer
C. plaint
73
Section 6 of Limitation Act does not apply to
Answer
A. insolvent
74
Section 15 of Limitation Act excludes from computation of limitation
Answer
D. all the above
75
Under section 25 of Limitation Act the easement rights are acquired by continuous & uninterrupted user
Answer
B. for 20 years
76
Which section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949, makes the maintenance of SLR mandatory
Answer
D. Both A and C
77
Which of the following section of Banking Regulation Act deals with restrictions on loans and advances
Answer
D. Section 20
78
Which of the following Act deals with maintenance of a percentage of assets
Answer
B. Sec.24 of Banking Regulation Act, 1949
79
Which of the following section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deals with licensing of banking companies
Answer
C. Sec 22
80
Which of the following section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deals with Reserve Fund?
Answer
C. Sec 17
81
Which of the following models law was used by the Indian Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
Answer
D. UNCITRAL, 1985
82
Which among the following is the main objective of the Arbitration Act, 1996?
Answer
C. to minimize the supervisory role of courts in the arbitral process
83
An arbitral award made under Part 1 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall be considered as a
Answer
A. Domestic Award
84
Arbitral proceedings commence
Answer
A. On the date on which a request for a dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent
85
Which one of the following is incorrect statement:
Answer
A. An arbitral award is a contract
86
If there any conflict between Family Court Procedure Rules and Civil Rules of Practice, which would prevail
Answer
A. Family Court Procedure Rules
87
Which provision of Civil Rules of Practice deal with Docketing
Answer
B. Rule 26
88
Procedure of change of Vakkalath includes
Answer
C. Either A or B
89
As per R.43 of Civil Rules of Practice every ------ shall be drawn up in first person and be divided into paragraph numbered consecutively and each para as nearly as may be shall be confined to a distinct portion of the subject matter.
Answer
C. Affidavit
90
R.128 of Civil Rules of Practice deals with
Answer
B. Marking Exibits
91
Where the mortgage is illegal for want of registration but the mortgagee continues in possession of the mortgaged property, a valid mortgage comes in existence after the expiry of:
Answer
C. 12 years
92
Which of the following is not valid consideration for establishing a lease:
Answer
C. a personal agreement by a tenant to pay a certain sum or a certain quantity in kind to the landlord
93
Which of the following can be transferred under the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
Answer
B. A decree for mesne profits
94
Which of the following is the definition of the term 'Exchange' as given under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
Answer
D. When two persons mutually transfer the ownership on one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only
95
Which of the following is the presumption made for lease under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, unless a contract or local usage states otherwise?
Answer
B. The lease of immovable property for purpose other than agriculture and manufacturing will be deemed to be for a period of one month
96
Which of the following properties can be transferred under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
Answer
D. neither A nor B
97
In case a lease is made for a certain period mentioning that it is terminable before its expiration, without mentioning at whose option ________ .
Answer
A. Only lessee will have the option of termination
98
In English law, a minor cannot hold a legal estate in land, in India, a lease by a minor is ____ .
Answer
B. Void
99
In which of the following cases will puisne mortgagee has no right to redeem a prior mortgage?
Answer
D. All of these
100
The doctrine of lis pendens:
Answer
Question Cancelled
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