| Post Name | Law Officer |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala State Co- operative Bank Ltd. |
| Question Paper Code | 042/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 192/2025 |
| Date of Test | 7 March 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Under the provisions of the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002, which of the following statements correctly reļ¬ects the statutory ceiling on the number of directors on the Board of a Multi-State Cooperative Society?
Answer
C. The Board shall consist of not more than 21 directors, excluding functional directors and Government nominees.
2
On receipt of an application for registration of a Multi-State Cooperative Society, the Central Registrar shall register the society if :
Answer
A. He is satisļ¬ed that the proposed society complies with the provisions of the Act and Rules
3
Which of the following is a privilege of a Multi-State Cooperative Society?
Answer
C. Limited liability of its members
4
Which Part of the Constitution of India deals with Cooperative Societies?
Answer
C. Part IX-B
5
Under the Constitution of India, which Article ļ¬xes the term of oļ¬ce of elected members of the board of a cooperative society, and what is the duration of such term?
Answer
B. Article 243ZJ(2) - Five years from the date of election
6
An inquiry into the constitution, working and ļ¬nancial condition of a Multi-State Cooperative Society may be held :
Answer
C. On the request of a prescribed number of members or suo moto by the Central Registrar
7
An appeal against an order of winding up may lie to:
Answer
B. Central Government or prescribed authority
8
In a Federal Multi-State Co-operative Society, voting rights are generally exercised by :
Answer
C. Member cooperative societies through their representatives
9
The liability of a member of a Multi-State Co-operative Society is:
Answer
B. Limited to the extent of unpaid share capital where the society is registered with limited liability
10
A member of a Multi-State Co-operative Society shall cease to be a member :
Answer
B. On resignation duly accepted by the competent authority, transfer of entire shareholding in accordance with the Act and bye-laws, expulsion under the Act, or death
11
Which provision states that a co-operative society shall not be registered if it is likely to be economically unsound, or the registration of which have an adverse eļ¬ect on development of co-operative movement.
Answer
A. Section 4
12
Which of the following transactions is generally excluded from the application of the SARFAESI Act under section 31?
Answer
D. Security interest in agricultural land.
13
Find out the correct statement.
Answer
B. "Miscellaneous societies" means such societies which accept deposits from their members only and no deposits shall be accepted from nominal or associate members, and shall undertake business activities for the welfare of its members as per the byelaws and shall issue loans only to members.
14
Under Section 13(9) of the SARFAESI Act, in case of ļ¬nancing by more than one secured creditor, enforcement of security interest requires consent of:
Answer
C. Consent from secured creditors holding atleast 60% of the total debt.
15
Which authority hears the aggrieved borrower's appeal against the possession notice under the SARFAESI Act?
Answer
C. Debts Recovery Tribunal (DRT)
16
Which section explains the qualiļ¬cation for membership to a co- operative society?
Answer
D. Section 16
17
Which section of the SARFAESI Act empowers an Asset Reconstruction Company to act as an agent of the Banks to recover dues?
Answer
B. Section 10
18
Under the SARFAESI Act, a secured creditor can enforce security interest without the intervention of court when the borrower's account is calssiļ¬ed as :
Answer
C. Non-Performing Asset
19
Find out the correct option (i) A nominal member of a Co-operative Society shall not be entitled to any share, in any form whatsoever, in the assets or proļ¬ts of the society or to be elected to the committee of a society. (ii) Section 50 of the Kerala Co-operative Societies Act 1969 provide for constitution of the Kerala Cooperative Ombudsman Scheme". (iii) A person shall not be qualiļ¬ed for appointment as a member of the Tribunal under the Kerala Co-operative Societies Act 1969 unless he is or has been holding the post of a High court Judge in the State. (iv) Section 57 D of the Kerala Co-operative Societies Act 1969 describe the objectives Cooperative Risk Fund Scheme.
Answer
D. Only the statements (i) and (iv) are correct
20
Which of the following explains the power of the Registrar to make an enquiry into the constitution, working and ļ¬nancial condition of the Co-operative societies?
Answer
C. Section 65 of the Kerala Co-operative Societies Act 1969.
21
Under section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer when :
Answer
B. Acceptance is posted or dispatched
22
As per Section 50 Sale of Goods Act, stoppage in transit is available to :
Answer
C. Unpaid seller
23
A and B share proļ¬ts of business carried by A alone without authority to bind B. Relationship is :
Answer
B. Co-ownership
24
A pledges watch to B. B retains watch until debt paid. This right is :
Answer
C. Lien
25
A dominates will of illiterate B and obtains unfair bargain. Burden of proof lies on :
Answer
B. A
26
Which of the following correctly states the legal position regarding silence and fraud under the Indian Contract Act?
Answer
B. Silence amounts to fraud only when there is duty to speak or silence is equivalent to speech.
27
Agreement to refer already arisen dispute to arbitration in writing is :
Answer
C. Valid
28
A bailee mixes bailor's goods with own without consent and goods separable. Remedy is:
Answer
A. Bailor may claim separation expenses.
29
A agent contracts without disclosing principal. Third party discovers principal later. Third party may:
Answer
D. Sue either agent or principal
30
A owes B Rs.50,000. Later A, B and C agree that C will become debtor instead of A. The eļ¬ect of this agreement is :
Answer
A. Novation
31
A guarantees payment for ļ¬ve bags of rice to be supplied by B to C. After supply and payment of those ļ¬ve bags, B supplies additional bags which remain unpaid. A's liability for additional supply is :
Answer
B. Not liable as guarantee was speciļ¬c
32
A normally sane person executes an agreement while intoxicated and incapable of understanding its nature. The agreement is :
Answer
A. Voidable at option of intoxicated person
33
Under Section 70 ICA, liability under quasi contract arises when :
Answer
B. Beneļ¬t is lawfully enjoyed without intention to be gratuitous
34
A and B jointly owe money to C. A pays the entire amount. B, unaware of payment, also pays C. C's legal obligation is to :
Answer
A. Refund amount received second time
35
Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, "accord and satisfaction" refers to:
Answer
C. Acceptance of substituted performance leading to discharge of original contract
36
Under BNS 2023, absolute liability primarily implies :
Answer
C. Liability without proof of mens rea
37
In oļ¬ences aļ¬ecting the human body, the statutory signiļ¬cance of mens rea under the BNS lies in the fact that :
Answer
A. Mental element varies with gravity of harm caused
38
The distinction between "Culpable homicide" and "murder" under the BNS is rooted in legislative gradation of blameworthiness. Which of the following best explains this statutory diļ¬erentiation?
Answer
D. Murder is a subset of culpable homicide with high degree of intention or knowledge.
39
Under BNS 2023, criminal conspiracy is complete when :
Answer
B. An agreement to commit an oļ¬ence is made.
40
Abetment under BNS includes :
Answer
D. All of the above
41
Under BNSS 2023, cognizance of an oļ¬ence upon a private complaint, the Magistrate is required to :
Answer
A. Examine the Complainant and witnesses on oath.
42
Under BNSS, the power to grant anticipatory bail is vested in
Answer
C. Court of Session and High Court
43
Search and seizure under BNSS must primarily comply with :
Answer
B. Legal safeguards and procedure
44
Plea bargaining aims to:
Answer
B. Speed up disposal of cases
45
Which of the following correctly distinguishes inquiry from trial under BNSS>
Answer
D. Inquiry precedes trial and does not determine guilt
46
The defendant in a suit, in addition to his right of pleading a set oļ¬, can set up a counter claim against the plaintiļ¬ under :
Answer
C. Order VIII Rule 6 A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
47
Where the access and use of light or air to and for any building have been peaceably enjoyed therewith as an easement, and ___________, without interruption, and for ________, the right to such access and use of light or air, shall be absolute and indefeasible.
Answer
B. As of Right, 20 Years
48
Which of the following is/are correct about the Right to Information Act, 2005? (i) The First Appellate Authority may admit the appeal after the expiry of the period of thirty days if he or she is satisļ¬ed that the appellant was prevented by suļ¬cient cause from ļ¬ling the appeal in time. (ii) Where an appeal is preferred against an order made by a Central Public Information Oļ¬cer or a State Public Information Oļ¬cer, as the case may be, under section 11 to disclose third party information, the appeal by the concerned third party shall be made within thirty days from the date of the order. (iii) A second appeal against the decision of the First Appellate Authority shall lie within ninety days from the date on which the decision should have been made or was actually received, with the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission.
Answer
D. All the above (i), (ii), and (iii)
49
Which of the following is/are correct about personal bars to relief under the Speciļ¬c Relief Act, 1963? (i) Speciļ¬c performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person who has obtained substituted performance of contract under Section 20. (ii) Speciļ¬c performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person who has become incapable of performing, or violates any essential term of, the contract that on his part remains to be performed, or acts in fraud of the contract, or willfully acts at variance with, or in subversion of, the relation intended to be established by the contract. (iii) Speciļ¬c performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person who is a reversioner in possession, where the agreement is a covenant entered into with his predecessor in title and the reversioner is entitled to the beneļ¬t of such covenant.
Answer
A. only (i) and (ii)
50
If, during arbitral proceedings, the parties settle the dispute among themselves,
Answer
C. The Arbitral Tribunal shall terminate the proceedings and, if requested by the parties and not objected to by the Arbitral Tribunal, record the settlement in the form of an arbitral award on agreed terms.
51
Name the sources of the constitutions authority as per the preamble
Answer
B. The people of India
52
The fundamental rights which are available only to the citizens
Answer
B. Right to freedom of speech and expression
53
Which of the following comes under concurrent list?
Answer
D. None of the above
54
The landmark case that recognized PIL as a tool for social justice in India
Answer
A. Hussainara Khatoon v State of Bihar
55
The control over the delegated legislation that involves reviewing whether delegated legislation conforms to the parent Act
Answer
C. Substantive Control
56
How many members does the lok pal consist of according to the Act?
Answer
B. 8 members
57
Which of the following purposes best serves rule of law?
Answer
A. To prevent arbitrary use of power and to protect individual rights
58
Who is primarily associated with the command theory of law?
Answer
A. John Austin
59
The situation where the court refuse to follow stare decisis
Answer
D. All the above
60
Which of the following is an example of real world AI entity that was granted legal person hood
Answer
B. Sophia the Robot in Saudi Arabia
61
Trade Dispute under Trade Unions Act includes (i) Dispute between employers and workman (ii) Dispute between workman and workman (iii) Dispute between employers and employers (iv) Dispute between workmen and workmen
Answer
D. (iii) & (iv)
62
Identify the wrong statement
Answer
B. The minimum number of Board of Directors is ļ¬ve in Public Company
63
Retrenchment under Industrial Disputes Act does not include :
Answer
D. All the above
64
Every employee shall be entitled to be paid by his employer in an accounting year, bonus, in accordance with the provisions of Payment of Bonus Act, provided he has worked in the establishment for not less than ___________ in that year.
Answer
A. 30 days
65
Employer shall not be liable for compensation to employee when the injury_____
Answer
A. does not result in the total or partial disablement of the employee for a period exceeding three days
66
Which of the following is correct under Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act? (a) EPF Scheme (i) Section 5 (b) EPS (ii) Section 6 C (c) Employees Deposit Linked (iii) Section 6 Insurance Scheme A
Answer
C. (a) & (i), (b) & (iii), (c) & (ii)
67
Factories Act mandates the employment of safety oļ¬cers when ___________ or more workers are ordinarily employed.
Answer
D. 1000
68
Identify the incorrect statement : Under the Kerala Shops and Commercial Establishments Act
Answer
D. Where an employee works in any establishment for more than eight hours in any day or for more than forty-eight hours in any week he shall in respect of such overtime work be entitled to wages at the rate of thrice the ordinary rate of wages.
69
Which of the following is included in the deļ¬nition of 'wage' under Minimum Wages Act?
Answer
C. House Rent Allowance
70
Under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act, 2013, during the pendency of an inquiry on a written request made by the aggrieved woman, the Internal Committee or the local Committee, as the case may be, may recommend to the employer to grant leave to the aggrieved woman upto a period of __________ months
Answer
C. Three
71
Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, which section empowers the Central Government to enter into "Reciprocal Agreements" with foreign governments to enforce the provisions of the Code?
Answer
B. Section 234
72
According to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2019, the entire Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) must mandatorily be completed within a period of _________ days, including any extensions and time taken in legal proceedings.
Answer
C. 330 days
73
The "Pre-Packaged Insolvency Resolution Process" (PPIRP) introduced under Chapter III - A of the IBC is currently applicable only to :
Answer
C. Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
74
Which of the following is considered a 'Document of Title to Goods' for the purpose of advancing loans?
Answer
B. Bill of Lading
75
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a person who receives a negotiable instrument as a gift (without consideration) is a:
Answer
B. Holder
76
In a case of dishonour of a cheque issued by a Company, which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the liability of the Directors under Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
Answer
C. A Director is liable only if it is proved that at the time the oļ¬ence was committed, they were in charge of, and responsible to, the company for the conduct of its business.
77
A cheque is originally "Payable to Order." The payee signs their name on the back without specifying a person to whom the payment is to be made (Endorsement in Blank). Subsequently, a holder writes "Pay to Mr.X" above that signature. What is the legal eļ¬ect of this action under Section 49 of the Negotiable Instruments Act?
Answer
B. The endorsement in blank is converted into an endorsement in full, and the instrument can now be negotiated only by Mr.X's endorsement.
78
Under the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, an acquirer who already holds 30% of the voting rights in a target company can acquire additional shares or voting rights without making a Public Announcement of an Open Oļ¬er, provided such acquisition does not exceed __________ in any ļ¬nancial year.
Answer
B. 5% of the voting rights
79
Under the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015, which of the following is a valid "Aļ¬rmative Defense" that an insider can use when accused of trading while in possession of Unpublished Price Sensitive information (UPSI)?
Answer
C. The transaction was an "Oļ¬-market" transfer between insiders who were in possession of the same UPSI, and the trade was not to evade the regulations.
80
An aggrieved party wants to challenge a decision passed by the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT). To which authority can they appeal, and within what time frame?
Answer
B. Supreme Court of India, within 60 days on a question of law.
81
A lease of immovable property for agricultural or manufacturing purposes can be created for a maximum period of
Answer
C. no time limit, subject to registration
82
Which section of transfer of property deals with lis pendens?
Answer
D. S.52
83
Which Section governs the transfer of property by Ostensible owner?
Answer
D. S.41
84
Which of the following is not a valid mortgage?
Answer
A. Conditional mortgage
85
When two persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only the transaction is called:
Answer
B. An exchange
86
An estate of a living person X for life, then to the living person Y for life and then to the unborn sons of Y. Whether the sons of Y can have interest if he dies before their existence
Answer
A. No. the son of Y must be in existence on or before the date of expiry of the life estate in favor of Y.
87
The ļ¬rst international treaty on intellectual property was
Answer
A. The Paris Convention
88
The term of copyright protecting for literary work in India is :
Answer
C. Life of the author + 60 years
89
_____________ allows modifying, renewing or expanding the global trademark portfolio through one centralized system.
Answer
B. Madrid System
90
Doctrine of Part performance is introduced in the TP (amendement) Act, 1929 by incorporating.
Answer
A. S.53a
91
Find the correct statement from the following : Statement 1 : Land Reforms laws aim at redistribution of land through ļ¬xation of ceilings. Statement 2 : Land Reforms laws aim at Tenancy Reforms.
Answer
C. Statements 1 and 2 are correct
92
Which of the following Fundamental Right in the Constitution of India has been removed for protecting the Land Reforms Laws in India?
Answer
B. Article 19(1)(f)
93
Which is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extend of individual or community forest rights of the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes under The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
Answer
D. None of the above
94
What is the percentage of Solatium amount ļ¬xed under Section 30 of The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?
Answer
A. 100%
95
Find the correct statement form the following : Statement 1 : The Kerala Conservation of Paddy Land and Wetland (Amendment) Act, 2018 completely prohibits the owner of an unnotiļ¬ed land to utilise the land for residential or commercial purpose. Statement 2 : The Kerala Conservation of Paddy Land and Wetland Act, 2008 provides for a total prohibition on removal of slurry and mud to maintain the ecological condition of wetland.
Answer
D. Both Statements are incorrect.
96
Find the Environmental law principle evolved by the honourable Indian Supreme Court
Answer
B. Absolute Liability Principle
97
As per the Public Trust Doctrine _____________ is considered as a Trustee of Natural resources.
Answer
C. State
98
Which of the following authority has the power to grant permit for hunting of wild animal for speciļ¬c purposes under The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972?
Answer
A. Chief Wild Life Warden
99
Which of the following contributed most to the development of Environmental Jurisprudence in India by higher Judiciary?
Answer
D. Public Interest Litigation
100
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Constitutional provisions relating to Environmental Protection in India : (i) Right to Healthy Environment is Speciļ¬cally stated as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution. (ii) Protect and improve the natural environment is a Fundamental Duty under the Indian Constitution. (iii) Article 48A of the Indian Constitution is added by the 42nd Amendment of Indian Constitution in 1976.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
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