| Post Name | LECTURER IN COMMERCE - TECHNICAL EDUCATION (Polytechnic Colleges) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 092/2023 |
| Category Code | 484/2022 |
| Date of Test | 26 June 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statement is/are correct ?
i. The central aim of applied research is to discover a solution for some pressing
practical problem.
ii. Qualitative research is mainly concerned with generalisations and with formulation
of a theory.
iii. In analytical research, the researcher has to use facts or information already
available.
Answer
D. Only i and iii
2
Consider the following Sampling designs :
i. Stratified Sampling
ii. Quota Sampling
iii. Cluster Sampling
iv. multistage Sampling
Which of the above are Complex Random Sampling designs ?
Answer
B. Only i, iii and iv
3
Which of the following statement is/are the demerit of collection of data through
questionnaire ?
i. Respondents have adequate time to give well thought answers.
ii. This method is likely to be the slowest of all.
iii. It can be used only when respondents are educated and cooperating.
iv. There is low cost even when the universe is large and is widely spread
geographically.
v. The control over questionnaire may be lost once it is sent.
Answer
C. Only ii, iii and v
4
If the monthly salary of 10 employees of a firm X are Rs. 2200, 2400, 2300, 2450,
2550, 2450, 2500, 2400.
Find out the Arithmetic mean.
Answer
Question Cancelled
5
match the list – I with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the list.
List – I List – II
i. mode a. The value of the middle item of series
ii. median b. most widely used measure of dispersion
iii. mean c. most frequently occurring value in a series
d. The most common measure of central tendency
Answer
D. i – c, ii – a, iii – d
6
Find the range of given observations.
33, 42, 29, 56, 35, 27, 24, 34, 39, 40.
Answer
B. 32
7
From the following which one is the measure of flat-toppedness of a curve and points
to the nature of distribution of items in the middle of a series ?
Answer
C. Kurtosis
8
Which one of the following is not a type of correlation ?
Answer
B. Relative correlation
9
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Type I error and Type II error ?
i. Accepting the Null Hypothesis when it is true.
ii. Rejecting the Null Hypothesis when it is not true.
iii. Rejecting the Null Hypothesis when it is true.
iv. Accepting the Null Hypothesis when it is not true.
Answer
D. Only iii and iv
10
Which of the following is not a part of Report Writing ?
Answer
B. determining sample design
11
State whether the following statements are true or false.
1. Financial System provides payment system for the exchange of goods and
services in the economy.
2. Financial system provides the avenues for managing the risks faced by the
market participants.
Answer
A. Both statements are true
12
Characterising one institution as Creators of Credit an another as Purveyors of Credit
clearly distinguishes between
Answer
C. Banking and non-banking institutions
13
“The risk that the real return on a security may be less than the nominal return” is
popularly known as
Answer
D. Inflation risk
14
“Smoothening of the short-term liquidity imbalances by developing an active money
market and integrating various segments of the money market” is the basic objective of
Answer
B. dFHI
15
Match the following :
Regulations Year of enactment
1. The Capital Issues
2. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act b. 1947
3. The Securities Contract Regulation Act c. 1973
4. The SEBI Act d. 1956
Answer
B. 1-b;2-c;3-d;4-a
16
Raising of finance with the help of a consortium of banks and financial institutions is
popularly known as
Answer
C. Credit syndication
17
Which one is the first mutual fund launched in India ?
Answer
B. Unit Scheme 64 of UTI
18
“Non-recourse purchase by a banker or any other financial institution of receivables
arising from export of goods or services” is known as
Answer
Question Cancelled
19
Match the following :
1. Anchoring a. Tendency to make choices based on overconfidence or
one’s own knowledge
2. Herding b. Attaching a spending level to a certain reference
3. Self attribution c. Tendency to mimic the financial behaviour of the majority
4. Emotional gap d. Decision making based on anxiety, excitement etc.
Answer
A. 1-b;2-c;3-a;4-d
20
The economic conditions in which the government’s regulatory and discretionary
policies distort financial prices or interest rates, discourage saving, reduce investment
and mis-allocate financial resources is popularly known as
Answer
C. Financial repression
21
The treatment of funds from the viewpoint of Financial management is based on
Answer
B. Cash flows
22
State whether the following statements are true or false.
1. The likelihood that the managers may place personal goals ahead of corporate
goals is known as Agency Problem.
2. Agency problem will increase due to hostile takeovers.
Answer
D. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
23
CAPm accounts for
Answer
A. Systematic risk
24
The ratio of earnings per share to the market value per ordinary share is known as
Answer
B. Earnings yield
25
The maximum rate at which the firm can grow by using both internal sources as well as
external debt without increasing financial leverage is known as
Answer
A. Sustainable Growth Rate
26
The discount rate that equates the present values of cash inflows with the initial
investment associated with a project, thereby causing NPV = 0 is known as
Answer
C. Internal Rate of Return
27
The measure of the volatility of a security’s return relative to the returns of a
broad-based market portfolio is known as
Answer
C. Beta
28
Which one is not a Risk Evaluation Approach ?
Answer
D. Profitability Index
29
The behavioural approach that evaluates the impact on the project’s profitability of
simultaneous changes in more than one variable at a time is known as
Answer
A. Scenario Analysis
30
“Bird-in-hand Argument” on dividend theory was developed by
Answer
D. m. Gordon
31
What is the required rate of return on the shares of A ltd. if, the return on the market
is 11%, the risk free rate is 6%, and beta coefficient is 0.5 ?
Answer
C. 8.5%
32
Which one of the following is a tool for fundamental analysis ?
Answer
D. PEG
33
The long thin lines above or below the body in a Candlestick chart are referred as
Answer
B. Wicks and tails
34
State whether the following statements are true or false regarding Random Walk
Theory.
I. Nobody has better knowledge or information.
II. Stock markets are not efficient.
Answer
B. Both I and II are false
35
What are the following assumptions are true regarding Black-sholes Option model ?
I. The stock underlying the call option provides no dividends during the life time
of option.
II. The risk free rate of interest is consistent during the life of option.
III. The call option can be exercised at any time.
IV. There is no transaction cost.
Answer
C. I, II and IV
36
State whether the following statements are true or false regarding Random Walk
Theory.
I. The systematic risk can be measure by the ‘beta coefficient’
II. Higher the value of beta coefficient indicate more stability and less risky.
Answer
C. I is true and II is false
37
Which one of the following is a diversifiable risk ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
38
State whether the following statements are true or false regarding efficient market
hypothesis.
I. Semi-strong form which absorbs only market price information.
II. Strong form which absorbs all type of information including insider information.
Answer
D. I is false and II is true
39
State whether the following statements are true or false.
I. Capital Market Line
Answer
C. ML) reflects the relationship between total risk and
expected return.
II. Securities Market Line (SML) reflects the relationship between unsystematic
risk and expected return.
40
State whether the following statements are true or false.
I. Options can be exercised at any time upto maturity date are called Asian option.
II. Option can be exercised only on the maturity date are called American option.
Answer
B. Both I and II are false
41
State whether the following statements are true or false.
I. Cost sheet is a memorandum statement.
II. Cost sheet is a statement designed to show the output of a particular
accounting period along with break-up of costs.
Answer
A. Both I and II are true
42
What will be the Re-order level if, minimum limit – 10,000 units, maximum limit – 50,000
units, daily requirement of material – 2000 units, time taken for fresh delivery of
material – 10 days ?
Answer
B. 30,000 units
43
Which one of the following is a replacement cost ?
Answer
C. Cost of recruitment
44
State whether the following statements are true or false.
I. The time lost when production is interrupted for machine maintenance is an
abnormal idle time.
II. The time wasted due to breakdown of machinery is an abnormal idle time.
Answer
D. I is false and II is true
45
The cause for incurrence of overhead cost are known as
Answer
A. Cost drivers
46
material mix Variance is favourable when
Answer
B. Actual quantity is lower than the revised standard quantity
47
State whether the following statements are true or false.
I. Standard costing helps to apply the principle of “management by Exception”.
II. Standard costing cannot be applied to service organisation.
Answer
C. I is true and II is false
48
Which of the following equation is wrong regarding variable cost ?
Answer
D. All are correct
49
In a manufacturing company provides the information relating to process I : material
Consumed – 2500 units, Normal loss – 15%, the net production in the process is
2150 units. Abnormal units will be
Answer
B. +25
50
Which of the following are indirect labours under selling overheads ?
1. Salaries of salesmen
2. Commission of salesmen
3. Salaries of godown employees
4. Salaries of technical representatives
5. Wages of drivers of delivery van
6. Wages of packing and dispatch staff
7. Fees of sales directors.
Answer
B. 1,2,4,7
51
As per the Income Tax Act, 1961, Section 80dd deduction is available up to the
amount
Answer
A. Rs. 75,000
52
Gratuity received by a government employee is
Answer
D. Fully exempted
53
When a minor child’s income is combined with a parent’s income, the parent might
claim an exemption of
Answer
C. Rs. 1,500
54
The current Assessment year as per the Income Tax Act, 1961
Answer
B. 1st April 2024 to 31st march 2025
55
The Gross Total Income as per the Income Tax Act, 1961 is defined as per
Answer
Question Cancelled
56
Composition tax payers are obliged to file Form No.
Answer
A. GSTR-4
57
An E-commerce business needs be registered
Answer
C. Irrespective of the threshold limit
58
What taxes are levied on Inter-State supplies ?
Answer
B. IGST
59
GSTIN refers to
Answer
A. GST Identification Number
60
The tax paid on the goods or services involved in the supply is known as
Answer
C. Input tax
61
Which principle specifies that costs or expenses must be recorded at the same time
as the revenue to which they correspond ?
Answer
D. matching Principle
62
The Indian Accounting Standard for Investment in Associates and Joint Ventures is
detailed in
Answer
A. INd-AS: 28
63
What is meant by contributory in liquidation of limited company ?
Answer
C. Partly paid up Equity shareholder
64
When purchasing company pays purchase consideration, the consideration is
debited to
Answer
A. liquidator of Vendor Company’s Account
65
The profit on reissue of forfeited shares is transferred to
Answer
D. None of the above
66
If the rate of Gross loss on sales is 20% and the cost of goods sold is Rs. 1,20,000,
What is the amount of sales ?
Answer
C. Rs. 1,00,000
67
Bad debts written off previously, if recovered subsequently
Answer
A. Credited to profit and loss account
68
Assets are recorded at their original purchase price according to the
Answer
D. Historical cost principle
69
Who will oversee the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process ?
Answer
C. Resolution Professional
70
Which of the following is an example of a short-lived asset not subject to inflation
accounting ?
Answer
C. Inventory
71
mr. lal is a corporate manager who prefers rule-regulated, orderly and unambiguous
activities. He is dull and a stubborn person. But is very efficient in work related activities
and is practical in his approach. What type is mr. lal’s personality ?
Answer
B. Conventional
72
Which of the following statements is true regarding cognitive framework of
organisational behaviour ?
Answer
A. Cognition precedes behaviour and serves as an input for a person’s thoughts,
perception, problem solving and information processing
73
The Hawthorne experiments were the first systematic attempt to undertake serious
research into the workplace. The series of experiments involved in development of
Hawthorne studies is/are
I. Pavlov’s experiment
II. The illumination experiment
III. Relay assembly room experiment
IV. Bank wiring observation room experiment
Answer
D. II, III and IV
74
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the underlying principles of
quality circles ?
I. The supervisor should be trained in facilitation skills.
II. Quality circles would be used only for addressing problems of a short term nature.
III. Continuous support from top management is essential for the success of
quality circles.
IV. Quality circles are involuntary groups of people who come together to generate
ideas.
Answer
B. Both I and III
75
mentoring programs help the employees to manage diversity in the organisations.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding mentor ?
Answer
B. Acts as a protégé
76
Two people may share a 48 hour per week job, with one working mornings and the
other working afternoons. This is an example of
Answer
B. Job sharing
77
Smt. Sheela Thomas is the manager of a company. She discusses problems with
subordinates and seeks their suggestions before making a decision. Her leadership
style can be referred to as
Answer
C. Participative
78
The sum total of ways in which an individual interacts with people and reacts to
situations is known as
Answer
D. Personality
79
Which of the following statements are true about the underlying principles of TQm ?
I. TQM tries to find better ways of managing different business processes, and
not just departments and functions.
II. TQM aims not only at achieving the financial goals of the company, but also at
making the company a socially responsible one.
Answer
D. All of the above
80
In which stage of the lewin’s model for introducing permanent change, the employees
are educated about the external and internal factors that make change imperative ?
Answer
B. Unfreeze
81
Which of the following is not an objective of ethical audit ?
Answer
C. To measure whether the business conducts against the moral or religious
standards of a community
82
In which of the following corporate governance model do financial institutions have a
major say in governance mechanism ?
Answer
C. Japanese model
83
Altruistic action, such as donating money, time, goods or services to charitable,
educational institutions etc. is known as
Answer
B. Philanthropy
84
A manager’s social responsibility is to make decisions that promote the welfare and
wellbeing of
I. Society
II. Government
III. Stake holders
Answer
D. All of the above
85
The Committee whose recommendations have been brought into force by SEBI for the
corporate Governance was chaired by
Answer
A. Kumara mangalam Birla
86
Which of the following is not related to the recommendations made by the Cadbury
Committee ?
Answer
D. Fixed auditors
87
Which of the following factors does not determine the code of ethics framed by a
marketer ?
Answer
D. Tolerance factor
88
Corporate Conscience is best decided by
Answer
C. Board of directors
89
Which of the following committee carries out selection of directors ?
Answer
B. Nomination Committee
90
Which of the following are the important features of a corporate body ?
Answer
D. All of these
91
GdR stands for
Answer
A. Global depository Receipts
92
The Smithsonian agreement was signed in
Answer
B. Washington
93
The first original reference of Purchasing Power Parity Theory was made by
Answer
Question Cancelled
94
The level of inventory that minimises total inventory carrying and ordering costs is
known as
Answer
C. Economic ordering quantity
95
Which of the following are coming under derivatives ?
Answer
D. All the above
96
A systematic and detailed record of all the receipts and payments made at
international level between countries is known as
Answer
B. Balance of Payment
97
Currency convertibility in India took place in the year
Answer
B. 1992-93
98
The process of attaching currency of a member country with that of foreign country
with which it undertakes larger volume of trade is known as
Answer
A. Pegging of Currencies
99
NAFTA is an international trade agreement made between
Answer
A. Canada, United States and mexico
100
The country where the mNC is established or incorporated is termed as
Answer
B. Home country
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