| Post Name | Lecturer in Commercial Practice (Govt Polytechnics) |
|---|---|
| Department | Technical Education |
| Question Paper Code | 146/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 707/2025, 817/2025, 819/2025 |
| Date of Test | 19 August 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Non-fulļ¬lment of the zero mean assumption for the stochastic term leads to the problem of
Answer
B. Biased intercept
2
___________ set is one in which individuals may be observed in diļ¬erent number of times.
Answer
C. Unbalanced panel data
3
Factor analysis has multiple uses (i) Scale construction (ii) Establish antecedents (iii) Psychographic proļ¬ling (iv) Segmentation analysis (v) Market studies
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii, iii, iv and v)
4
Permissible statistics of an interval scale include 2 a. test b. ātā test c. āzā test d. Binomial test e. ANOVA f. Percentages g. Regression h. Friedman ANOVA
Answer
B. Only (b, c, e and g)
5
Statement I : Organisation analysis involves collecting literature related to the organization under study. Statement II : The persons from whom research related information is to be collected are called unit of analysis.
Answer
A. Both statements I and II are correct
6
Families with triplets are generally selected using which sampling method ?
Answer
C. Snowball sampling
7
Following are the contributions in the ļ¬eld of TQM 1. Walter Shewartļ¼Founder PDCA Cycle 2. Philip B Crosbyļ¼Concept of Zero Defect 3. Kaoru Ishikawaļ¼Father of Just In Time 4. Taiichi Ohnoļ¼Originator of Fish Bone Find which one is wrongly matched ?
Answer
D. 3 and 4 were wrongly matched
8
Consider the following situation : An aspirant preparing for the Civil Services Examination leaves their noisy hostel room and moves to a quiet library to focus on their studies. According to B.P. Skinnerās behavioural theory. Which technique of self-control is being demonstrated ?
Answer
B. Stimulus avoidance
9
Find out the wrongly matched contributors in the school of management thoughts. 1. Elton Mayo ā Quantitative School 2. Henri Fayol ā Organisational School 3. F.W. Taylor ā Scientiļ¬c Management School 4. Abraham Maslow ā Behavioural School
Answer
A. 1 alone is wrong
10
In the context of administrative structure and organizational communication, the term āGangplankā refers to
Answer
A. A method used to bypass traditional bureaucratic hierarchies for urgent inter- departmental communication
11
Which of the following features is not a characteristic component of the transactional theory of leadership ?
Answer
C. Idealized Transformational Inļ¬uence
12
The purpose of _______________ interview is to predict future performance based on experiences.
Answer
B. The behavioural interview
13
Which of the following statements regarding Kohlbergās stages of moral development are correct ? (i) The pre-conventional level focuses primarily on punishment and personal reward. (ii) The conventional level emphasizes conformity to social norms and laws. (iii) The post-conventional level rejects ethical principles in favour or organizational rules.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
14
Which of the following correctly matches the ethical theory with its primary focus ? (i) Utilitarianism ā Maximizing overall welfare (ii) Rights Theory ā Protection of individual rights (iii) Justice Theory ā Fairness in distribution and procedures
Answer
D. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
15
A CEO consistently prioritizes the interests of employees, customers, suppliers, shareholders and society while making strategic decisions. Which corporate governance model best reļ¬ects this approach ?
Answer
C. Stakeholder Model
16
Which of the following statements regarding Corporate Governance models is/are correct ? (i) The Anglo-American model gives greater importance to shareholders. (ii) The Japanese model encourages long-term relationships among stakeholders. (iii) The German model includes employee representation on supervisory boards.
Answer
D. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
17
An organization wants to strengthen governance by ensuring independent review of compliance with legal and procedural requirements under the Companies Act. Which mechanism should it primarily adopt ?
Answer
B. Secretarial Audit
18
A listed company is facing the following issues simultaneously : Ā· A Senior executive sold company shares before the publication of quarterly losses. Ā· Anonymous employees reported ļ¬nancial manipulation through the whistle-blower mechanism. Ā· The Board failed to review the eļ¬ectiveness of internal controls. Ā· The company has been spending the prescribed amount on CSR activities. Which of the following conclusions is MOST appropriate ?
Answer
C. Compliance with CSR alone cannot compensate for failures in ethical leadership, board oversight and market integrity.
19
Assertion (A) : Monte Carlo Simulation is used to analyse problems involving uncertainty. Reason (R) : It repeatedly generates random values for uncertain variables to estimate possible outcomes. Choose the correct answer :
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
20
According to William J Baumolās Model, the optimum cash balance is determined by balancing :
Answer
C. Holding Cost and Transaction Cost
21
Assertion (A) : Under the MM Theory with corporate taxes, ļ¬rms beneļ¬t from debt ļ¬nancing. Reason (R) : Interest payments on debt are tax-deductible. Choose the correct answer :
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
22
A company is said to be highly geared when
Answer
B. Fixed interest securities are more than equity share funds.
23
Which of the following are assumptions of the Net Income (NI) approach to capital structure ? 1. The cost of debt is lower than the cost of equity. 2. There are no corporate taxes. 3. The use of debt does not change investorsā perception of the ļ¬rmās risk.
Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
24
Match the following : Committees and the year of Constitution (Working Capital Financing in India) List ā I List ā II (Committees) (Year) A. Dehejia Committee I. 1968 B. Tandon Committee II. 1974 C. Chore Committee III. 1979 D. Chakravarty Committee IV. 1985
Answer
A. A ā I, B ā II, C ā III, D ā IV
25
The market for short-term loan is known as
Answer
B. Money market
26
___________ is a method of disposing trade debts of a client to a ļ¬nancial intermediary.
Answer
C. Factoring
27
Which of the following is a capital market instrument ?
Answer
D. Equity share
28
The main objective of the depository system is to
Answer
A. Hold securities in electronic form
29
Which among the following is not a function of SEBI ?
Answer
D. Issuing currency notes
30
A lease that transfers the risks and rewards incidental to ownership of an asset to lessee is known as
Answer
A. Financial lease
31
Assertion (A) : According to the semi-strong form of the eļ¬cient market hypothesis, investors cannot consistently earn abnormal returns by analyzing publicly available ļ¬nancial statements. Reason (R) : In the semi-strong form, all publicly available information is assumed to be rapidly and fully reļ¬ected in security prices.
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
32
Statement I : According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), the expected return on a security depends on its systematic risk rather than its total risk. Statement II : A well-diversiļ¬ed portfolio eliminates unsystematic risk, leaving only systematic risk to be rewarded in equilibrium.
Answer
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
33
Two students make the following observations regarding CML and SML : Statement I : The Capital Market Line (CML) uses total risk (standard deviation) as the measure of risk and is applicable only to eļ¬cient portfolios. Statement II : The Security Market Line (SML) uses systematic risk ( b) as the measure of risk and can be used to evaluate both individual securities and portfolios. Which of the following is correct ?
Answer
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
34
An investor is comparing four mutual funds using the Sharpe Ratio. Which of the following situations would result in the highest Sharpe Ratio, assuming all other factors remain unchanged ?
Answer
C. Higher excess return per unit of total risk
35
Which one of the following statements regarding forward and futures contracts is not correct ?
Answer
D. A forward contract is more liquid than a futures contract because it is traded on organized stock exchanges.
36
Consider the following statements regarding the Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) : Statement I : APT assumes that the expected return on a security may be inļ¬uenced by multiple systematic risk factors. Statement II : Unlike the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), APT does not require the existence of a market portfolio for estimating expected returns.
Answer
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
37
Statement I : Opportunity cost represents the beneļ¬t sacriļ¬ced by choosing one alternative over another. Statement II : Opportunity cost is always recorded in the accounting books.
Answer
C. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
38
Assertion (A) : Transfer pricing is used for transactions between divisions of the same organization. Reason (R) : Transfer pricing helps evaluate divisional performance and managerial eļ¬ciency. Choose the correct answer :
Answer
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
39
Assertion (A) : Price skimming involves charging a high initial price for a new product. Reason (R) : It helps recover research and development costs from early adopters. Choose the correct answer :
Answer
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
40
Statement I : In Activity-Based Costing, all overheads are allocated based only on direct labour hours. Statement II : Diļ¬erent activities may require diļ¬erent cost drivers.
Answer
D. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
41
List ā I List ā II A. Pareto Analysis 1. Manage bottlenecks B. TOC 2. Reduce inventory C. TQM 3. Prioritize signiļ¬cant problems D. JIT 4. Continuous quality improvement
Answer
C. A ā 3, B ā 1, C ā 4, D ā 2
42
Statement I : Financial statement analysis supports investment and lending decisions. Statement II : Ratio analysis is one of the major tools used in ļ¬nancial statement analysis. Statement III : Financial statement analysis has no role in management decision-making.
Answer
B. Statements I and II are correct
43
Under Ind AS 103 (Business Combinations), how should the acquirer account for a āBargain Purchaseā (Negative Goodwill) ?
Answer
B. Recognize it directly in capital reserve after reassessing the fair values of all net assets acquired
44
While preparing a Consolidated Balance Sheet, how is the unrealized proļ¬t on inter- company stock eliminated if the transaction was a āDownstreamā sale (Parent to Subsidiary) ?
Answer
A. Fully deducted from the Parentās Consolidated Proļ¬t and Loss account and the Consolidated Inventory
45
In the Liquidatorās Final Statement of Account, which of the following operational liabilities carries the absolute highest priority of payment ?
Answer
B. Liquidatorās Remuneration and Expenses
46
What is the statutory time limit mandated by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) 2016 for the completion of the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP), inclusive of any extensions ?
Answer
C. 330 days
47
To ļ¬nd the true proļ¬tability of an incomplete voyage at the end of an accounting period, how is the āPrimageā handled ?
Answer
C. Added to the freight earnings and recognized as revenue, with unearned portions carried forward as a liability
48
In Investment Accounting, if an investor sells equity shares āEx-Rightā during a rights issue, the cash proceeds from selling the rights directly in the open market are generally credited to
Answer
B. The Statement of Proļ¬t and Loss
49
A mode of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in which a foreign company establishes a completely new manufacturing or business facility from scratch in a host country, rather than acquiring an existing enterprise is
Answer
C. Green Investment
50
A type of trade agreement where member countries eliminate tariļ¬s and trade restrictions and adopt a single common external tariļ¬ on imports from non-members
Answer
A. Customs Union
51
Which economic theory states that compares the relative value of currencies by equating the prices of a standard basket of goods and services across countries ?
Answer
D. Purchasing Power Parity Theory
52
Contracts giving the holder the right, but not the obligation, to buy (call) or sell (put) an asset at a speciļ¬c strike price before or on expiration
Answer
A. Option
53
The type of Foreign Direct Investment when a company invests in a foreign business that operates in the same industry and produces similar goods or services is termed as
Answer
B. Horizontal FDI
54
Maintaining global monetary stability, oļ¬ering short term ļ¬nancial assistance, acting as a global ļ¬nancial referee etc. are the features of which organisation ?
Answer
C. International Monetary Fund
55
Interest received from a savings bank account is generally taxable under
Answer
C. Income from other sources
56
What is the exemption limit of children education allowance ?
Answer
A. 100 per month per child maximum 2 children
57
Goods worth ā¹ 5,00,000 are supplied from Kerala to Tamil Nadu. GST rate is 18%. Which of the following statement is correct ?
Answer
B. IGST payable is ā¹ 90,000
58
A return of income ļ¬led after the due date but before the prescribed time limit is called
Answer
C. Belated return
59
Which of the following losses can be set oļ¬ against salary income in the same assessment year ?
Answer
C. Loss from house property
60
Input Tax Credit (ITC) availed by a registered person under GST shall be credited to which of the following ?
Answer
C. Electronic credit ledger
61
The shorthand outline of the words āon theā should slope a little because
Answer
C. To secure a better angle
62
When joined to ____________ the sign āIā may be shortened.
Answer
B. M
63
When the stroke __________ immediately precedes or follows a circle which is attached to a curve, it is written in the same direction as the circle.
Answer
C. L
64
The termination ā-tionā in the word āextenuationā is represented by
Answer
C. Upward āshā and ānā hook
65
An intervening dash vowel is indicated by
Answer
B. Striking the sign through the stroke consonant
66
The initial āLā is written downward in the outline of the word
Answer
D. Elusive
67
Initial āshā is written downward in the outline of the word
Answer
D. Shovel
68
The outline of the word in which the ānā hook is not used medially is
Answer
C. Suddenly
69
The outline of the grammalogue āthyselfā is written
Answer
A. Above the line
70
_____________ is a coalescent.
Answer
A. W
71
In shorthand, when a word begins or ends with a vowel sound, the ļ¬rst or last consonant as, the case may be represented by
Answer
A. A stroke
72
Half length H, when not joined to another stroke, is always written in which direction ?
Answer
A. Upward only
73
Which statement is/are correct about preļ¬x in- before str, skr and h(up) ? (i) In- before the circled strokes is expressed by a large hook written in the same direction (ii) In- before the circled strokes is expressed by a small hook written in the same direction (iii) In- is written disjoined (iv) A small hook is written disjoined in the same direction
Answer
B. Only (ii)
74
Choose the correct statement from the following. (i) Stroke T is employed to represent the word attention (ii) Stroke J is employed to represent the word journal (iii) Stroke T is employed to represent the word transfer (iv) Stroke J is employed to represent the word joint
Answer
D. (i) and (ii)
75
The f or v hook in advanced phraseography is used to represent
Answer
A. Have, of, after and even
76
In shorthand, which of the statement is/are correct ? (i) A semi circle is employed medially as an alternative to the stroke āWā. (ii) General contractions are formed by the omission of P in words where the P is only lightly sound. (iii) In a single stroke outline halving an initial and a ļ¬nal vowel, ļ¬nal vowel should be inserted. (iv) Special contractions are formed by medial omission, halving and intersection.
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
77
Choose the correct statement from the following.
Answer
D. Whenever āing would be represented by a dot, -ings is indicated by a dash
78
Which phrase is used in the words āAccount salesā and āin reply to your letterā ?
Answer
B. Business phrases
79
The thickened forms of ālrā, ārrā must not be used
Answer
A. When a vowel follows r
80
Which form of āSTā is written after shun hook ?
Answer
C. Upward or downward
81
Which of the following describes the fundamental distinction between a web browser and a search engine ?
Answer
A. A web browser is software used to access and view websites, whereas a search Engine is database-driven website used to ļ¬nd other websites based on keywords
82
In Microsoft Word, what does the āFormat Painterā tool copy from selected text ?
Answer
B. The exact formatting properties (like font, size, color, bold style) but not the text characters
83
In a standard Microsoft Excel worksheet, how are columns and rows identiļ¬ed respectively?
Answer
B. Columns by Letters (A, B, C,...); Rows by Numbers (1, 2, 3,...)
84
Which keyboard key can be pressed during an active Slide Show in Microsoft PowerPoint to immediately terminate the slide show and return to the Normal editing view ?
Answer
B. Escape (Esc)
85
Consider the following statements regarding tables in Microsoft Word. (i) When a table is inserted, the user can customize individual row heights and column widths. (ii) Word allows users to merge cells horizontally or vertically, and also split a single cell into multiple rows or columns. (iii) Table columns can only have a ļ¬xed size and cannot be conļ¬gured to automatically resize based on cell content. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
86
With reference to the Ruler in Microsoft Word, consider the following statements : (i) The āFirst Line Indentā marker adjusts the indentation of only the ļ¬rst line of a paragraph. (ii) The āHanging Indentā marker adjusts the indentation of all lines in a paragraph except the ļ¬rst line. (iii) Indents can only be adjusted by opening the paragraph settings dialog box and cannot be modiļ¬ed using the ruler. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
87
Consider the behavior of text manipulation functions in Microsoft Excel. (i) The CONCATENATE (or CONCAT) function is used to join two or more text strings into one single text string (ii) The formula = LEFT(āKPSC Examā, 4) returns the text value āKPSCā (iii) The LEN function returns the number of characters in a text string, excluding empty spaces Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
88
With reference to slide layouts and printing features in Microsoft PowerPoint, consider the following statements. (i) Slide page orientation defaults to standard landscape, but can be conļ¬gured to portrait in Slide Size layout settings. (ii) PowerPoint allows printing āHandoutsā containing 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 or 9 slides formatted per page. (iii) A presentation can easily contain some slides in portrait layout and other slides in landscape layout within the same single slide deck. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
89
With reference to page design and background elements in Microsoft Word, consider the following statements : (i) A āWatermarkā is a faint background image or text (like āDRAFTā) displayed behind document text (ii) Word allows applying Page Borders to the entire document or to speciļ¬c section only (iii) A Watermark is applied globally to all pages in a document and cannot be customized to appear on only speciļ¬c sections of a document Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
90
In Microsoft Excel, statistical calculations are highly structured. Consider the following statements : (i) The MAX and MIN functions return the largest and smallest numerical values in a range of cells respectively (ii) If a cell range contains text characters or empty cells, the AVERAGE function automatically counts them as zeros in its calculations (iii) The formula = COUNTBLANK (A1:A10) calculates the exact count of empty cells in the range A1 through A10 Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Answer
A. Only (i) and (iii)
91
Consider the following statements regarding Adobe Photoshop tools : i. The clone stamp tool copies pixels from a user-deļ¬ned source area and its operation requires the user to specify a sampling point before painting. ii. The Lasso Tool is used to make freehand selections by manually drawing around the desired area. iii. The spot healing brush tool requires the user to deļ¬ne a sampling point manually before it can remove blemishes from an image. iv. The patch tool repairs selected portions of an image by blending pixels from another area to match the surrounding texture and lighting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer
A. i, ii and iv only
92
From the following statements ļ¬nd the incorrect/incorrects : (i) The options bar is located at the top of the photoshop window and contains dropdown menus such as ļ¬le, edit, image, layer, select, ļ¬lter, view, window and help. (ii) The document window is the central area where the active image or ļ¬le is displayed and edited. Multiple documents can be opened in separate tabs within the same workspace. (iii) The Status Bar is displayed just below the Menu Bar and changes dynamically based on the currently selected tool. It shows settings and controls speciļ¬c to the active tool. (iv) The application bar provides quick access to workspace switching, zoom controls and arrangement options. It helps to manage the overall workspace environment in photoshop.
Answer
C. (i) and (iii)
93
Consider the following and ļ¬nd correct statements. i. Changing the resolution of an image without changing the number of pixels aļ¬ects only the physical print size of the image not its pixel data. ii. Changing the number of pixels in an image directly aļ¬ects the level of detail and clarity of the image. iii. Increasing the resolution of an image always increases the number of pixels in the image. iv. Reducing the number of pixels in an image can lead to loss of image detail and pixelation.
Answer
B. i, ii and iv only
94
Identify the following terms which refers to inserting an object into a document in such a way that it becomes an integral part of the document and does not depend on the original source ļ¬le.
Answer
B. Embedding
95
Match List ā I with List ā II : List ā I List ā II i. Eraser tool a. Creates precise curves using nodes ii. Bezier tool b. Deletes freehand portions of vector objects iii. Knife tool c. Deletes only intersecting segments of objects iv. Virtual Segment Delete Tool d. Cuts objects into separate pieces
Answer
A. i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
96
Which of the following statements about Twitter are correct ? i. Tweets were originally limited to 140 characters. ii. In Twitter usernames are called handles. iii. Proļ¬le URLs do not include the account username. iv. Twitter oļ¬cially launched in 2006.
Answer
D. i, ii and iv
97
Which of the following statements about the closing and signature of D.O. Letters is/are correct ? i. D. O. Letter is signed without mentioning the designation. ii. It normally ends with āYours sincerelyā. iii. It can be signed by a subordinate on behalf of another oļ¬cer. iv. It is addressed by the recipientās oļ¬cial designation only.
Answer
A. i and ii only
98
From the following statements regarding socio-psychological barriers to communication : Statement I : A receiver may misunderstand a message not because of the senderās choice of words, but because personal experiences, educational background and value systems inļ¬uence how the message is perceived. Statement II : Communication is likely to become more eļ¬ective when mutual trust exists between the sender and receiver, as the receiver is more willing to interpret the message positively. Choose the correct answer.
Answer
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
99
Which of the following statements regarding Blogs is/are incorrect ? i. A blog is an IT-enabled platform that enables individuals to publish content on the internet and allows readers to post comments on the published content. ii. Multi-author blogs are generally maintained by a single author, while guest authors are not permitted to contribute to such blogs. iii. A blog may generate income for its owner when it attracts a signiļ¬cant number of visitors and advertisers enter into agreements to display advertisements. iv. Blogs diļ¬er from one another not only in the nature of their content but also in the manner in which the content is presented.
Answer
C. ii only
100
Which of the statements given below is/are correct ? i. Public invitation of tenders is generally associated with works requiring advance planning rather than immediate execution. ii. The primary objective of inviting tenders through public notice is to restrict participation to a limited number of contractors. iii. Long-duration projects are generally executed through the tendering process. iv. Adequate prior preparation is one of the considerations for inviting public tenders.
Answer
D. i, iii and iv only
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