| Post Name | Lecturer in Commercial Practice (Polytechnics) |
|---|---|
| Department | Technical Education |
| Question Paper Code | 090/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 339/2024 |
| Date of Test | 12 August 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The following table shows the characteristics of pure research and applied research. Identify the common incorrect characteristic feature of pure research and applied research as enlisted in Part A and Part B respectively of table given below No Part A (Pure Research) Part B (Applied research) I Reporting is made in common language Reporting is made in technical language II Develop and test theories by evolving Speed up the process of building basic broad principles theories III Variables not measured remain constant Variables not measured are constantly changing remain constant IV The research tries to say how things The research tries to say why things can be changed happen
Answer
D. I and IV only
2
You are given the characteristic features of research designs as tabled below. The column A, B and C enlists features of exploratory design, diagnostic design and experimental design respectively in social science research. You are required to identify incorrect combination of features of research designs in column A, B and C as tabled below. No. Column A :Exploratory Column B : Diagnostic Column C : Experimental I. Unstructured and lack Mostly motivated by Aims at controlling flexibility hypothesis extraneous variables II. Most used methods are Related to discovering and Manipulation of dependent expert opinion, case studies testing association of certain variable variable III. Used for problem formulation Seek immediate action to Comparison, manipulation timely solution of casual and control are elements components IV. Absence of preplanned Uses non probability Enables to draw casual analysis techniques sampling design inferences
Answer
C. Column A Column B Column C I IV II
3
You are given with selected sampling designs and core characteristics of the sampling designs. Match column A with B that describes the features code Sampling design Characteristics I Quota sampling (A) Heterogenous population II Stratified sampling (B) Selecting every item from a complete list III Cluster sampling (C) Sample size is set in advance IV Systematic sampling (D) Intra group heterogencity
Answer
D. I II III IV C A D B
4
The following statements are related to Thurston differential scale. Which of the following statement (s) doesn't represent Thurston differential scale? I. The scale works best when only multiple attitudes are to be measured II. The scale from respondents point of view needs no scoring, no ranking but merely checking item with which he agrees. III. The construction of scale is difficult and expensive IV. The scale is based on method of equal appearing intervals.
Answer
C. I is only incorrect
5
Which of the following fact (S) correctly describe level of significance in testing hypothesis? I. Represents the probability of error in rejecting/not rejecting null hypothesis II. Represents level of risk in rejecting a correct null hypothesis III. Five (5) per cent level of significance means the difference between parameter and statistic 0 up to 5 per cent is a difference due to chance and beyond that it is significant. IV. The word significance specifies whether the difference between the statistic and parameter is significant or it can be attributed to sampling fluctuations.
Answer
D. I, II, III and IV
6
You are given with types of validity and what does it establish. Match the type of validity and purpose/result of test of validity Code Validity measures Outcomes/purpose I. Criterion related validity (A) Extent to which a measuring instrument provide coverage Of topic under study II. Construct validity (B) Reflects success of instrument used for estimation or prediction III. Content validity (C) Determine the validity of new measuring techniques in relation to established techniques IV. Concurrent validity (D) Related to factors that account for difference in variance in measurement scores
Answer
B. I-B II-D III-A IV-C
7
The following table presents contributions of eminent management thinkers in management. Match the contributions of exponents to the great management thinkers Code Management Thinkers A. Contributions I Henry L Gnatt Apply psychology in advertising, marketing, personnel II Walter O Scott B. Human Relations Movement III Douglas Mc Gregor C. Administrative principles IV Mary Parker Follet D. Scientific selection of workers to foster harmony between them and management
Answer
A. I-D II-A III-B IV-C
8
You are given a set of contributors towards various schools of management thought. Match the combination of set of contributors to schools of management as tabled Code Management Thinkers Contributions I Kenneth, Boulding, Johnson and (A) Mathematical approach C.W. Churchman II Joel Dean, Newmann and Hicks (B) Contingency approach III John Woodward, Fielder, (C) Social systems approach J.W. Lorsch and P.R. Lawrence IV Chester Bernad, Herbert Simon and (D) Systems approach Renis Likert
Answer
A. I-D II-A III-B IV-C
9
Minitzberg's observations and subsequent research indicate that manager activities can be organised into ten roles you are enlisted with the roles of a manager as envisaged by management exponent. The roles can be classified into three categories-interpersonal, informational and decisional roles. Which of the following combinations of manager role is correct? I Figurehead II Entrepreneur III Disturbance handler IV Spokesperson V Monitor VI Liaison VII Resource allocator VIII Negotiator IX Leader X Disseminator Combinations Interpersonal Informational Decisional A IV, IX, III I, V, X II, VI, VII, VIII B I, IX, VI IV, V, X II, III, VII, VIII C I, IX, III IV, V, X II, VI, VII, VIII D VI, VIII, IX V, X, I II, III, IV, VII
Answer
B. Combination B is only correct
10
Which one of the following facts are correct with respect to behavioural theories on leadership? I. Ohio State University Studies, University of Michigan studies and LMX theory belong to behavioural leadership theories II. Production centered leaders and employee centered leaders are identified as two leadership dimensions of leadership as per Ohio state university studies III. The initiating structure and consideration are identified as two leadership dimensions of university of Michigan studies IV. Based on LMX theory, the leader behaviour depends on who the subordinate is
Answer
D. Only IV is correct
11
You are required to identify the correctness of facts related to motivational theories. Which of the facts are incorrect in respect of motivation theories as detailed below? I. ERG theory doesn't assert that a lower level need has to be satisfied before a higher level need, nor does say that deprivation is the only way to activate a need II. Maslow emphasizes that any unsatisfied need, whether of lower or higher level, will motivate people III. While theory X is positive, participatory and democratic, theory Y is negative, traditional and autocratic IV. According to Vroom, concept force is equivalent to motivation which is the product of valency and expectancy
Answer
B. Only statement III is incorrect
12
Following table outlines the characteristics of the theories of group formation. You are required to match the features/outcome/propositions of the theories to the theories of group formation Code Theories of group formation Features/outcome/propositions of Group formation theory I Homan's theory (A) Similar attitudes towards common relevant objects and goals attract people each other II Propinquity theory (B) Reward cost outcomes of interactions III Balance theory (C) Activities, interactions and sentiments are key drivers IV Exchange theory (D) Individuals affiliate because of spatial or geographical proximity
Answer
C. I II III IV C D A B
13
Consider the following statements about the relationship between business ethics and the law: (i) Ethics and the law overlap, but they are not equivalent (ii) The law defines the maximum standards of acceptable behaviour (iii) The law does not explicitly cover every possible ethical issue in business. Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
14
Which of the following statements about whistle blowing are correct? (i) Whistle blowing involves exposing unethical or immoral conduct in an organization (ii) It is like blowing a referee's whistle to stop the game due to rule violation (iii) Whistle blowing automatically means that the allegations are true
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
15
Which of the following statements are true according to agency theory of corporate governance? (i) The managers ensure that the decisions are in the interest of shareholders (ii) The separation of management and control gives birth to the agency problem (iii) In an open and liberal economy, the agents are prey to the principal-agent problems.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
16
Which of the following are driving forces fostering the evolution of corporate social responsibility? (i) New concerns and expectations from citizens, consumers, public authorities and investors. (ii) Increased concern about the damage caused by economic activity to the environment (iii) Transparency of business activities brought about by the media and modern information and communication technologies
Answer
D. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
17
Which of the following statements correctly describe the assumptions and functioning of stewardship theory of corporate governance? (i) The stewardship theory is an ideal theory (ii) The board of directors is composed of external experts who impose vigorous disclosure measures (iii) The stewardship theory assumes that managers are good and trustworthy
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
18
Which of the following statements are correct about utilitarianism? (i) Utilitarianism is a teleological theory regarding what we ought to do (ii) Utilitarianism is possibly concerned with the consequences of an action (iii) The moral worth of an individual's action depends on their personal intention, not on the result of the action
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
19
Which of the following statements are true according to the MM theory of capital structure and its assumptions? (i) Securities are infinitely divisible (ii) Investors hold identical expectations about future operating earnings (iii) Firms can be grouped into equivalent risk classes on the basis of business risk
Answer
D. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
20
Which of the following statements about operating leverage are correct? i. Operating leverage refers to use of fixed costs in the operation of a firm ii. If there are no fixed costs, there is no operating leverage iii. Operating profit changes proportionately with sales due to fixed costs
Answer
A. only i and ii
21
Which of the following statements about IRR are correct? i. IRR is the rate at which the net present value is zero. ii. IRR considers the time value of money. iii. IRR takes into account the total cash flows and cash outflows
Answer
D. all i, ii and iii
22
Which of the following are assumptions of Walter's dividend model? (i) The firm finance all investment through issue of new equity or debt. (ii) All earnings are either distributed as dividends or reinvested internally immediately (iii) The firm has a very long or infinite life
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
23
Which of the following are valid motives for holding cash according to John Maynard Keynes? (i) Transaction motive (ii) Investment motive (iii) Speculative motive
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
24
Which of the following statements correctly reflect the concept of sensitivity analysis? (i) Sensitivity analysis is used to measure how sensitive NPV (or IRR) is to changes in all variables simultaneously (ii) It is a way of analysing change in the project's NPV (or IRR) for a given change in one of the variables (iii) It involves working out how much difference it makes if any of the forecast go wrong.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
25
The Security Market Line (SML) describes the line of fair return of a security. From the following, calculate Fair Return of the security 's'. Risk free rate is 6%, expected return of the Market is 12%, Beta of security 's' is 1.5 and investors expect a return on security 's' is 18%.
Answer
A. 15
26
Consider the following statements on Capital Asset Pricing Model. Identify the statement that is Wrong.
Answer
D. It says about the relationship between risk and the realised return of a capital asset
27
Consider the following statements on Arbitrage Pricing Theory. Identify the statement that is wrong.
Answer
B. It assume that there is non linear relationship between return and various risk factors
28
Following statements are related to Portfolio Management. You are requested to idnetify the wrong statement
Answer
D. In 'Buy and hold policy' the whole portfolio is bought at ones and held for a duration less than one year and sold out atones; the process repeats throughout the life of the portfolio
29
Consider the following assertion and the reason. Then select appropriate answer from the options statements given below : Assertion : Over the Counter derivative markets are much larger compared to exchange traded derivative markets Reason : In over the counter derivative market participants can create derivative instruments that are suitable to them and are traded through networks of dealers
Answer
A. Both assertion and reason are true. And the reason is correct explanation of assertion
30
Consider the following statements on options contracts in derivative markets. Identify which statement is wrong
Answer
C. In a put option, purchaser is in short position and the seller is in long position
31
Consider the following statements on 'Treasury Bills'. Identify the wrong statement
Answer
B. 364 days Treasury Bills are the oldest short term borrowing instrument used by the Central Government
32
Following statements are on 'Depository' system operating in Indian capital market. Identify the wrong statement.
Answer
C. If a security is dematerialised, an investors cannot pledge it as collateral to anyone, other than to the share brokers
33
Consider the following statements on 'Insider' as per SEBI - Prohibition of Insider Trading Regulations, 2015. Identify the wrong statement.
Answer
D. A person who is in possession of generally available information is also treated as an insider
34
Consider the following statements. Identify the statement the better provide the basic/general characteristics of Bahavioural Finance theories
Answer
B. Stock prices in stock market reveal some predictable patterns
35
Given below are the various financial services. Identify the service that is not a 'Fee' based financial service.
Answer
C. Forfaiting
36
Consider the following statements on Financial Modeling. Identify the wrong statement.
Answer
A. Historical data is not much relevant while doing financial modeling
37
Increase in profit volume ratio means __________ break even point and ________ margin of safety.
Answer
A. Lower, Higher
38
The unavoidable fixed cost even if the plant is shut down temporarily are called
Answer
C. Shutdown cost
39
In life cycle costing, __________ is a post acquisition cost.
Answer
A. Operating cost
40
The formula for target cost is
Answer
B. Market Price - Desired profit
41
Which of the following is not a feature of process costing?
Answer
D. Individual job tracking
42
Activity based costing is especially beneficial when
Answer
A. Overheads high products diverse
43
One among the following is not a feature of IFRS? Identify the same
Answer
B. Emphasis on rules and strict norms
44
A voyage started on March 1 and ended on May 31. If the accounting year ends on March 31 and 1/3rd of voyage is completed by then, how much of Rs. 9,00,000 freight revenue should be recognised?
Answer
A. Rs. 3,00,000
45
Valuation of goodwill in holding company is dealt in
Answer
C. IFRS 3
46
The assets and liabilities are recorded at __________ under pooling of interest method
Answer
C. Book value
47
An investor purchased 500 shares of Rs. 80 each. Company declared 1 : 5 bonus. What is the average cost per share after bonus?
Answer
D. Rs. 66.67
48
Which of the following is an example of environmental cost?
Answer
C. Both (1) and (2)
49
Which of the following statements are TRUE? i. FDI refers to the process of making investment by the FIIs in the stock markets of India for short term objectives ii. Mercantilism as a theory of international business emphasises national wealth accumulation through a positive trade balance iii. Stages of internationalisation of business involves the transition and transformation of domestic companies into the ultimate stage of a transnational companies
Answer
C. Statements ii and iii alone are true
50
Which among the following statements are WRONG with regard to the international forums and membership of India in it? i. India is a permanent member of the OPEC ii. India is a founding member of the BRICS iii. India is a permanent member in the ASEAN
Answer
B. Statement i and iii alone are wrong
51
Identify the TRUE statements from the following : i. World Bank (IBRD) and IMF were popularly called as the twin sisters in international finance and were formed as an outcome of the Bretton Woods Conference ii. UNCTAD was established as a permanent intergovernmental body within the UN Security Council for maintaining peace and security among nations through military interventions iii. WTO was formed by replacing the GAAT and was given the mandate to regulate the international trade and observance of intellectual property rights among member nations
Answer
C. Statements i and iii alone are true
52
Which of the following statements are FALSE? i. In a foreign exchange market, if the forward rate is higher than the spot rate, the difference is called forward discount ii. Futures are customised financial contracts traded in Over the Counter (OTC) whereas Forwards are standardised financial contracts traded on designated exchanges iii. Options are financial contracts where the option buyer has the obligation to buy or sell but not the right to buy or sell it
Answer
D. Statements i, ii and iii are false
53
Identify the INCORRECT statements from the following relating sources of international finance for Indian Companies i. ADRs are negotiable certificates issued by an international bank capable of trading in the stock exchanges of European countries and it represents ownership of shares in Indian companies ii. GDRs are depository receipts issued by an international bank against the shares of Indian companies which are usually traded in the stock exchanges of USA iii. ECBs refers to a loan raised by eligible Indian companies from overseas lenders
Answer
A. Statements i and ii alone are incorrect
54
Which among the following statements are TRUE with regard to the exchange rates and its dealing? i. Purchasing power parity theory, Asset-market model and portfolio balancing model provides the conceptual framework for the exchange rates ii. Currency forwards, currency futures, currency options and currency swaps are used to hedge against the foreign exchange exposure iii. FEMA serves as the legal framework for foreign exchange trading in India
Answer
D. Statements i, ii and iii are true
55
Find the CORRECT statements from the following in relation to the Income Tax Law in India. i. A resident (ROR) is not required to pay income tax on the income obtained from outside India ii. Gratuity received by an individual employee at the time of retirement will be taxed at the applicable slab rate of the individual iii. Income earned by the individual during the financial year 2024-25 will be assessed by the department in the assessment year of 2024-25 itself
Answer
D. None of the statements are correct
56
A salaried employee below 60 years have salary income of Rs. 20,00,000 and interest income from savings bank account of Rs. 8,000. His Provident Fund deposits during the year comes Rs. 2,00,000. The taxable Total Income of the individual in the in the OLD regime for the financial year 2024-25 after the applicable deductions will be :
Answer
A. 18,00,000
57
Which of the following statements are TRUE? i. Interest on housing loan taken for acquiring/constructing the house property will be allowed as a deduction in the old regime subject to a maximum of Rs. 4,00,000 (for the FY 2024-25) ii. The long term capital gain from investment in the listed equity shares are exempted upto Rs. 1,250,000 for the FY 2024-25. iii. Tax deducted by the banks on the interest on deposits of individual customers are called as the TCS
Answer
B. Statement (ii) alone is true
58
Identify the INCORRECT statements from the following : i. GST council is an advisory body which makes recommendation to the government on the rate of GST to be levied on goods and services and the exclusion or inclusion of items from the GST. ii. GSTN is the technological backbone of the GST regime and provides the G2B and B2G interface for the users through GST common portal iii. GSTIN is an index of the HSN codes used for classifying goods under the GST regime.
Answer
C. Statement (iii) alone is incorrect
59
Which of the following statements are TRUE? i. Time of supply in GST is a decisive factor for ascertaining the due date of making payment of tax (GST) to the government ii. Place of supply in GST is a decisive factor for deciding which type of tax to be levied and remitted (that is CGST and SGST or the IGST) iii. Value of supply in GST is a decisive factor in determining the amount upon which the GST rate is to be applied and tax is calculated
Answer
D. Statement (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
60
Identify the WRONG statements from the following. i. Eligible ITC as per the GSTR 2B will be available in the Electronic Cash Ledger of the taxpayer. ii. Alcoholic liquor for human consumption is taxed under the GST at the highest rate of 28% iii. CGST and SGST will be collected in the case of intra-state supply of goods
Answer
A. Statements (i) and (ii) alone are wrong
61
The halving principle is used in advanced phraseography to represent
Answer
D. it, would, not and word
62
Choose the correct statement from the following i. When stroke 'R' follows another stroke and is hooked finally it is generally written upward ii. Initial 'R' preceded by 'M' is always written downward iii. Medial 'R' is generally written upward.
Answer
A. (i) and (iii) are correct answer
63
Doubling principle is employed in phraseogrpahy for the indication of the words :
Answer
C. There, their
64
Choose the correct statement from the following According to the first vowel sound :
Answer
D. All double length downstrokes are written through the line
65
The stoke 'P' written close after a figure represents?
Answer
B. percent
66
Choose the correct statement from the following The use of intersections i. Stroke 'K' is employed to represent the word Captain ii. Stroke 'K' is employed to represent the word Capital iii. Stroke 'N' is employed to represent the word Nation iv. Stroke 'N' is employed to represent the word National
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
67
The four strokes __________, ____________, ____________ and _______ are halved and thickned for the addition of 'd'
Answer
B. 'M', 'N', 'L' and 'R'
68
Choose the correct statement from the following
Answer
A. Str' loop may be used medially or finally but not initially
69
The 'N' hook used in phraseography to represent
Answer
C. Been, than, own and on
70
Give the correct statements given below : i. Downward form of 'H' is most commonly used ii. When standing alone downward form of 'H' is used iii. When preceding stroke 'm' initial 'h' is represented by short 'tick'
Answer
D. (i) and (iii) are correct answer
71
Find out the wrong statement from the following :
Answer
B. The dipthong I and OI are written in the first place and second place respectively
72
Consonants are divided into _________ groups.
Answer
A. Six
73
What grammalogues are presented by stroke 'r' doubeld?
Answer
D. Writer, rather
74
How many consonants are there in Pitman's shorthand?
Answer
B. Twenty four
75
Which form of 'H' is used to write the word 'apprehensive' and 'perhaps'?
Answer
D. Dot H
76
Special contractions are formed by i. Writing two or three strokes for full outline ii. Using halving and doubling rules iii. By using inter-section of strokes iv. By using medial omission
Answer
C. i, iii and iv are correct answer
77
How many compound consonants are in Pitman's shorthand?
Answer
A. Eight
78
Give the correct statements given below: i. Circle 'S' is written inside the curves ii. A large initial circle with the same motion of circle 'S' represents 'ses' or 'Sez'. iii. When standing alone circle 'S' is written with left motion iv. Circle 'S' cannot be added to the logogrammes
Answer
B. i and iii are correct answers
79
The Shun Hook is always written on the right side of stroke _________, ________ and ________.
Answer
D. T, D and J
80
The four diphthongs are
Answer
C. I, OW, OI and U
81
Which is the input device that detects the authenticity of cheque leaves?
Answer
B. MICR
82
Who invented the Analytical Engine?
Answer
A. Charles Babbage
83
Which is the shortcut key to insert equation in MS word?
Answer
D. Alt + =
84
What is the use of the 'thesaurus' option in MS Word?
Answer
C. Synonyms and Antonyms
85
What is size of A4 paper?
Answer
A. 8.27'' × 11.69''
86
Which one of the following is an example for absolute addressing?
Answer
D. $A$1
87
Which tab includes conditional formatting in MS Excel?
Answer
B. Home
88
Which function is used to find biggest value in a range?
Answer
C. Max()
89
Name the shortcut key to start slide show from the current slide?
Answer
B. Shift + F5
90
What is the maximum zoom value in MS powerpoint?
Answer
D. 400
91
Which photoshop painting option controls how strongly the dodge and burn tools affect the lightness or darkness of an image? I. Flow II. Exposure III. Opacity IV. Smudge
Answer
C. II only
92
Which of the following tools in Corel Draw is used to create starburst or jagged effects on the outline of an object? I. Distort II. Extrude III. Crystalize IV. Dodge
Answer
D. III only
93
Which of the following in photoshop is a collection of tools or panels to adjust colors, layers and other settings? I. Pages II. Layers III. Palettes IV. Filters
Answer
A. III only
94
In Coral Draw, how can you apply a smooth color blend the transitions from one color to another within an object? I. Pattern Fill II. Fountain Fill III. Postscript Fill IV. Texture Fill
Answer
B. II only
95
Which of the following options in Photoshop is used to combine multiple layers into a single layer? I. Merge layers II. Free Transform III. Dodge Tools IV. Stroke
Answer
C. I only
96
Communication aimed at providing facts and figures fulfills which objectives? I. Motivation II. Warning III. Information IV. Persuasion
Answer
A. III only
97
Communication between departments such as marketing and finance is an example of which among the following can be considered as process of communication? I. Downward communication II. Upward communication III. Horizontal communication IV. Grapevine communication
Answer
D. III only
98
Which type of communication follows official channel and procedures? I. Informal communication II. Formal communication III. Verbal communication IV. Non-formal communicaton
Answer
A. II only
99
Collection letter is also known as I. Adjustment Letter II. Compliant Letter III. Dunning Letter IV. Circular Letter
Answer
B. III only
100
Which among the following is not a part of a Government Order? I. Read II. Complementary Close III. Abstract IV. By order of the Governor
Answer
C. II only
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