| Post Name | Lecturer in Commercial Practice (Polytechnics) - Technical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 155/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 462/2022, 463/2022, 666/2022, 737/2022, 738/2022, 739/2022 |
| Date of Test | 5 October 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
What do you mean by Research Design? (A) Design of method of Research data collection (B) Design of synopsis of a Research (C) Design of Analysis and report Writing (D) Overall plan for the orderly conducting of a Research
Answer
C. Only D
2
Which method of Sampling is the most appropriate one to minimise error in data Collection (A) Sub-Sampling from total population (B) Stratiļ¬ed Sub-sampling from the population (C) Initial Sampling from the population (D) The most Representative Sampling
Answer
C. Only D
3
Descriptive Statistics are typically distinguished from inferential Statistics Why? (A) Use to Reach conclusions beyond the immediate data (B) Use to describe what is or what the date shows (C) Use to make inferences from our data (D) Use to make judgements of probability
Answer
A. Only B
4
The General Linear Model belongs to Inferential Statistics family that includes (A) Mean, Mode, Median, Percentile (B) Average, Simple Percentage, percentile (C) t-test, ANOVA, ANCOVA, Regression analysis (D) GPA, Reliability corrected analysis, SPS, Regression-Dicontinuity Design
Answer
B. Only C
5
What is the primary objective of citation in a Research Report? (A) Credibility to the Researcher alone (B) Credibility to the Original Author (C) Help to show literature citations (D) Help to show scientiļ¬c formatting in research report
Answer
A. Only B
6
Read the following assessment methods and ļ¬nd out which groups belongs to Summative evaluation category? (A) Outcome evaluation, Impact evaluation, Cost-eļ¬ectiveness, Meta-analysis (B) Need assessment, Evaluability assessment, Structured conceptualisation, Process evaluation (C) Feed-back, formative evaluation, monitoring, follow-up evaluation (D) Class-test, Field-test, Skill-test, performance-test
Answer
D. Only A
7
Which one of the following roles does not constitute management roles as proposed by Henry Mintzberg?
Answer
D. Training role
8
Scalar Chain is related to
Answer
A. Communication
9
Management may be regarded as profession because
Answer
A. Various management association have formulated ethical code of conduct to be observed by their member
10
__________ theory of leadership suggest that leadership is an emergent phenomenon in the form of integrative leadership out of interaction of a leader and his followers within the contextual variable lying within an organisation and outside it
Answer
B. System Theory
11
_____ concept of Vroom's equation represents an individual's belief that a particular level of performance will be followed by a particular degree of eļ¬ect
Answer
D. Expectancy
12
Which among the following is the correct order of ļ¬ve stages of group devlopment proposed by Tuckman
Answer
C. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing and Adjourning
13
Deontology is proposed by teh philosopher named
Answer
C. Immanuel Kant
14
____________ is an ethical theory holds the view that an action or decision is right if it maximises utility or produce the greatest good for largest number of people
Answer
A. Utilitarianism
15
Sarbanes - Oxley Act was enacted in the year
Answer
C. 2002
16
Which one of the following does Not fall in the category of SEBI's Three pillars of corporate Governance?
Answer
B. Financial Discipline
17
At which level of Lawrence Kohlberg's moral reasoning morality is cantered around what society regards as right?
Answer
C. Conventional
18
The Companies act 2013, requires the board of every listed company and certain other public company to constitute audit committee consisting of minimum _____ director
Answer
D. 3
19
Which of the following is an assumption of Miller-Modigliani Dividend Irrelevance hypothesis? (i) Investors are irrational (ii) No taxes (iii) Flotation Cost (iv) Investors are able to forecast future prices and dividend with certainty
Answer
C. Statements ii and iv are correct
20
What should be the cost of Retained earnings?
Answer
D. All the above
21
Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Operating Leverage provides the relationship between EBIT and EPS (ii) operating Leverage is used to enhance the proļ¬tability of the company (iii) Leverage arises due to the presence of Fixed cost options
Answer
C. Statements ii and iii are correct
22
Y Ltd issues Rs. 50,000 8% debentures at a premium of 10%. The tax rate applicable to the company is 60%. Compute the cost of debt capital?
Answer
A. 2.91%
23
Which of the following statements are correct? (i) The Net Income Approach States that the increase in proportion of debt maximises the value of the ļ¬rm (ii) Net Income Approach and Net operating Income Approach are both contributed by Durand (iii) Net income approach and Net operating income approach both give preference to debt for increasing the value of the ļ¬rm
Answer
A. Statements i and ii are correct
24
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Average Rate of return of Capital budgeting? (i) The ARR method considers all the cashļ¬ows throughout the economic life of the project (ii) ARR methods considers the time value of money (iii) Its information can be identiļ¬ed from the ļ¬nancial statement of the ļ¬rm
Answer
B. Statements i and iii are correct
25
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Indian Call Money market? (i) It operates for short term borrowing and lending (ii) Transactions in the call money market are typically for a ļ¬xed term of 3 months (iii) The RBI is not involved in regulating the Call money market
Answer
A. Statements i and ii are correct
26
Which of the following is a beneļ¬t of using a depository system for holding securities? (i) Reduced risk of physical certiļ¬cates being lost or damaged (ii) Faster and more eļ¬cient settlement of securities transaction (iii) Higher returns on investment compared to traditional paper-based system (iv) Greater transparency in shareholding pattern
Answer
A. Statements i and ii are correct
27
In 2014, India implemented a major change in its stock exchange by introducing a Uniļ¬ed Exchange platform, What is this platform called?
Answer
B. BOLT
28
The BSE introduced its iconic stock index, the SENSEX in the year
Answer
C. 1986
29
Which of the following statements about Overconļ¬dence bias is correct?
Answer
B. Overconļ¬dence bias can result in excessive trade and risk taking
30
What is the main concept behind the "Prospect theory" in behavioural ļ¬nance?
Answer
C. Investors tend to be loss averse and make choices based on perceived gains and losses
31
The term used to denote the price changes of securities represents probable departures from previous prices
Answer
B. Random Walk
32
Which statements about Harry Markowitz's portfolio optimization model are correct? (i) Form the portfolios that have the same return, the investor will prefer the portfolio with lower risk (ii) From the portfolios that have the same return, an investor will prefer the portfolio with higher risk (iii) From the portfolios that have the same risk level, an investor will prefer the portfolio with a higher rate of return
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
33
Which is the term used to describe an investment position intended to oļ¬set potential losses or gains that may be incurred by a companion investment?
Answer
A. Hedge
34
Which is the measurement of the returns earned in excess of that which could have been earned on an investment that has no diversiļ¬able risk?
Answer
C. Reward-to-volatility ratio
35
Which opportunities arise, when the current buying price of an asset falls below the price speciļ¬ed in a futures contract to sell the asset?
Answer
A. Arbitrage
36
The measure of uncertainly about the returns provided by the stock
Answer
B. Volatility
37
________ represents an increase in the total cost due to changes in the quality of products
Answer
C. Incremental cost
38
Which of the following statements are correct about variance analysis? (i) If the actual result is better than the standard result, variance is unfavourable (ii) If the actual result is lower than the standard result, the variance is adverse (iii) Favourable and unfavourable variances are also called credit variances and debit variances
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
39
Section of the organization of an undertaking deļ¬ned for the purpose of budgetary control
Answer
A. Budget centre
40
Which of the following statements are correct about Job Analysis? (i) Merrick's Diļ¬erential Piece rate System Suggests three-piece rates (ii) Time Study and Motion study are the important features of Taylor's Diļ¬erential Piece Rate System (iii) Under the Bedaux Point Premium System, the time allowed for a job is expressed in terms of points
Answer
D. All the Above (i), (ii) and (iii)
41
PARETO Analysis is also known as
Answer
D. The 80:20 Rule
42
When the selling price equals the cost, Contribution = _____________
Answer
C. Fixed Cost
43
As 9 relates to
Answer
B. Revenue Recognition
44
Fire damaged the premises of the trader resulting a loss of stock of Rs. 1,20,000. The goods salvaged from ļ¬re was Rs. 20,000. The policy was for Rs. 60,000 eligible for average clause. Amount of Claim to be lodged is
Answer
C. 50,000
45
When the subsidiary company issues bonus shares out of pre- acquisition proļ¬t, the amount of resulting goodwill account will be
Answer
C. Remains the same
46
Statement (a) For Considering amalgamation in the nature of merger, all the assets and liabilities of the transferor company become the assets and liabilities of the transferee company Statement (b) For considering amalgamation in the nature of merger, less than 90% of the selling company's shareholders may become the shareholders of the purchasing company
Answer
B. Statement (b) correct, Statement (a) False
47
Which of the following list deals with preferential creditors on liquidation of company?
Answer
C. List C
48
Clear proļ¬t of an Electricity company is Rs. 23,000 and reasonable return is Rs. 20,000. The amount transferred to Transfer and dividend Control reserve is
Answer
C. Rs. 1,000
49
___________ project is a contract under which a ļ¬rm aggress to fully design, construct and equip a manufacturing/business/service facility and hand over the project over to the purchaser when it is ready for operation for a remuneration
Answer
C. Turnkey
50
Which of the following country is not a member of SAARC?
Answer
C. China
51
Which of the following is not belong to World Bank Group?
Answer
D. International Bank for Rural Empowerment and Development (IBRED)
52
A balance of payment surplus leads to __________ of foreign currency but an _______ of the currency of the home country
Answer
A. Depreciation, Appreciation
53
Purchasing Power parity theory of Foreign Exchange Reate determination based on the assumption of
Answer
B. Law of one price
54
_________ is an agreement between two parties to exchange cash ļ¬ows in future and the cash ļ¬ows are based on underlying instruments
Answer
C. Swap
55
Section 56-59 of the Income tax Act deals, with the computation of
Answer
C. Income from other sources
56
Mr A an Indian citizen purchased 1000, zero coupon Bonds, on january 2022 for Rs. 2,00,000. On february 2023 he sold it for Rs. 3,00,000. the correct answer is
Answer
C. The gain eļ¬ected Rs. 1,00,000 is a Long term capital gain
57
As per the ļ¬nance Bill 2023 the basic exemption limit under the new regime is
Answer
B. Rs. 3,00,000
58
As per Income tax Act, Income under Section 2(24) include (i) Proļ¬t of any business caused on by a person (ii) Any advance money forfeited in the course of negotiations for transfer of capital Asset Choose the correct option
Answer
A. Both (i) and (ii) included
59
Which of the following would be included in the description of "Goods" under section 2(52) of the GST Act 2017 (i) Equity Shares (ii) Growing crops (iii) Auctionable Claim (iv) Money
Answer
D. (ii) and (iii) only
60
GST is levied on supply of all goods and services except
Answer
C. Alcoholic liquor for human consumption
61
Which group of consonants ļ¬ow into union with other consonants and make double consonants?
Answer
C. Liquids
62
How we insert third place intervening vowel in a word?
Answer
B. Before the second stroke at the end
63
Which strokes are never written through the line? (i) Halved (ii) Horizontal (iii) Intervening (iv) Doubled
Answer
C. Only (i) and (ii)
64
Consider the following statement which option is correct? (i) The downward form of 'r' is always written after 'm' (ii) 'L' hook is written left motion to upward 'R'
Answer
C. Statement (i) and (ii) are incorrect
65
The sign for 'i' is abbreviated when preļ¬xed to
Answer
D. Stroke L
66
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Circle 'S'? (i) The circle 's' is written inside curves (ii) The circle 's' is written outside angles formed by two curved strokes (iii) When standing alonge, it is written left motion (iv) The circle 's' is written Right motion, when joined to straight strokes not forming and angle
Answer
A. Only (i) and (iii)
67
There is a large initial circle, written with the same motion as the circle 's', represents
Answer
D. SW
68
Consider the statement given below, which statement is/are incorrect? (i) The STR loop is never written at the beginning of an Outline (ii) There is no 'f' or 'v' hooks to curved strokes (iii) SHR is always written upward and SHL is always written downward (iv) The consonant 'z' is also represented initially by a small circle
Answer
B. Only (iii) and (iv)
69
In shorthand, when a word begins or ends with a consonant, that consonant is to be written with
Answer
C. Briefest
70
A small ļ¬nal hook struck by the Right motion to all straight strokes is
Answer
C. 'n' hook
71
The hooked form of "L N and SH N " when joined to another stroke is written in which direction?
Answer
A. Upward or Downward
72
From the statements given below, which statement is/are incorrect about SHUN hook? (i) It is written with the right motion to t, d and j (ii) It is written inside curves (iii) It is written on the side opposite to the initial attachment (iv) It is written with the left motion after the form FK
Answer
A. Only (i) and (iv)
73
Which form of 'h' is used when 'h' is followed by 'k' or 'g'?
Answer
B. Downward
74
After a single straight upstroke, the Suļ¬x '-er' must be written to which direction?
Answer
B. Downward
75
Which statement is/are correct about stroke 'sh'? (i) The curve 'sh' is written downward after the curve 'n' (ii) When joined to a straight stroke , 'sh' is generally written downward (iii) 'Sh' is written upward after the stroke 'd' (iv) After a straight down stroke with an initial attachment 'sh' is written on the opposite side to such attachment
Answer
D. Only (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
76
Fill in the blanks with suitable answers A small initial hook to 'L' represents ________ and a large initial hook to 'L' represents ____
Answer
C. W, WH
77
In words of one syllable, heavy strokes, without a ļ¬nal hook or a joined diphthong, halved for
Answer
B. D only
78
In many words two vowels occur consecutively, each being separately pronounced is called?
Answer
B. Diphone
79
Select the correct option based on the statement given below (i) The "dot ing" cannot be used medially (ii) When standing alone, the right curve for 'THL' is used if a vowel follows, and the left curve if a vowel precedes
Answer
A. Statement (i) is correct and Statement (ii) is incorrect
80
Match the following from the data given below Which strokes are used while intersecting words (a) Chancery (i) Stroke 'KR' (b) Colonel (ii) Stroke 'R' (Down) (c) Arrange (iii) Stroke 'K' (d) Capital (iv) Stroke 'J' (v) Stroke 'R' (Up) (vi) Stroke 'CH'
Answer
C. (a)-(vi), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
81
Which one of the following is example of search engine?
Answer
B. DuckDuckgo
82
_________ is not an Input Device
Answer
D. COM
83
Which Shortcut in MS-Word is used to close a document
Answer
A. Ctrl+w
84
Which features in MS-Word enables to repeat the frequently used tasks
Answer
C. Macro
85
_____ is used to add additional space to the margin while print a document
Answer
A. Gutter
86
___________ in excel is used to change or highlight inserting data points for investigating and scrutiny
Answer
B. Conditional formatting
87
__________ shortcut in Excel is used to delete a row
Answer
A. Ctrl+(minus sign)
88
____________ is used in excel to copy the cell format to another cell
Answer
D. Format painter
89
Which software is used to create presentation
Answer
B. Power point
90
_______ shortcut in power point is used view the print preview
Answer
A. Ctrl+F2
91
_____________ package is used to create, edit and manipulate graphical digital and pictorial works
Answer
C. Photoshop
92
The extension of normal photo shop ļ¬les
Answer
C. PSD
93
___________ tool in photo shop is used to select a layer is diļ¬erent shape
Answer
A. Marquee
94
________ shortcut in corel draw is used to select ellipse tool
Answer
B. F7
95
Transition of object in coreldraw is done by ___________ tool
Answer
B. Blend tool
96
Communication means exchange of ideas, opinion, facts, emotions etc. between 2 or more persons with continuously
Answer
C. Understanding and responding to the message
97
Which part of the letter indicates the end of the letter?
Answer
A. Subscription
98
What is the use of CC in E-mail?
Answer
C. Recipients of the message are visible to all other recipients of the message
99
Letters written to a creditor reminding him to settle an overdue account are known as
Answer
D. Dunning letters
100
A D.O letter is written for which of the following reasons?
Answer
D. All of the above
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