| Post Name | LECTURER IN LAW |
|---|---|
| Department | COLLEGIATE EDUCATION |
| Question Paper Code | 035/2015/OL |
| Category Code | 657/2012 |
| Date of Test | 23 December 2015 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Represent India is a famous work written by
Answer
A. G.P. Pillai
2
Name the play written by Swadeshabhimani Ramakrishna Pillai
Answer
D. Nizhalukal
3
In which district of Kerala firstly started the Kudumbasree project?
Answer
C. Alappuzha
4
In which year Sahodaran Ayyappan became the editor of the magazine Yukthivadi
Answer
A. 1928
5
Malayalam translation of Rubaiayat by G. Sankara Kuruppu is
Answer
D. Vilasalahari
6
Who characterised Kumaranasan as the poet of renaissance?
Answer
B. Thayat Sankaran
7
Janamma a socio reformer was the wife of ----------- who was well-known social reformer and Renaissance leader.
Answer
D. Kumaraguru
8
Who started the magazine Adhakrithan?
Answer
B. K.P. Vallon
9
Who was the chief architect of Kerala legislative assembly?
Answer
C. Ram Swami Ayer
10
Which article of Indian constitution is declare, India is a union of states?
Answer
B. Article 1
11
The research antagonistic to ex-post facto research is
Answer
A. Experimental research
12
Evaluation performed prior to teaching is
Answer
B. Diagnostic evaluation
13
Dioramas are
Answer
B. 3 dimensional aids
14
Term used by qualitative researchers to refer to what might be labelled ''scientism'', which is the belief that all true knowledge must be based on science is
Answer
C. Positivism
15
Generalisations and principles are provided and students are asked to verify them with examples is
Answer
B. Deductive method
16
Formulation of hypothesis may not be necessary in
Answer
B. Historical studies
17
''Secondary schools of Ancient Rome'' is an example for
Answer
B. Historical research
18
The highest level of level of teaching is
Answer
A. Reflective level
19
Which one is not true of action research?
Answer
C. Has universal validity
20
Project method is based on the philosophy of
Answer
A. Pragmatism
21
The word ''Secular'' in the Preamble of the Constitution was inserted by the
Answer
D. 42nd Constitutional Amendment
22
Food Safety and Standards Act was passed in the year
Answer
B. 2006
23
The right to silence is implicit in
Answer
D. Article 19 (a)
24
'Senior Citizen' under the Maintenance of Parents and Senior Citizens Act means
Answer
B. A person who has attained the age of 60 years or above
25
The right to property is a
Answer
D. Constitutional right
26
''Work place'' as defined in the sexual harassment at workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act 2013 includes a 'dwelling place or house'
Answer
A. True
27
The concept of 'Welfare State' is envisaged under
Answer
A. Directive principles of state policy
28
The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission is appointed by the
Answer
C. President
29
The National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) aims at providing atleast --------- of guaranteed wage employment to every household with adult workers willing to do unskilled manual work.
Answer
B. 100 days
30
The Protection of Women from domestic violence was enacted in the year
Answer
C. 2005
31
What will happen if a person who had his domicile in the territory of India and who was born in the territory of India after commencement of the Constitution voluntarily acquires the citizenship of any foreign state?
Answer
D. He shall lose his Indian citizenship
32
The members of the Constituent Assembly were
Answer
B. Indirectly elected by Provincial Assemblies
33
The Fundamental Right to Freedom guaranteed under Article 19 of the Constitution of India is available to
Answer
C. All citizens of India
34
In which of the following cases decided by the Supreme Court of India, it was held that 'Right to Life does not include Right to Die'?
Answer
A. Gian Kaur vs. State of Punjab [(1996) 2 SCC 648]
35
If a Money Bill passed by the House of the People and transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations is not returned to the House of the People within a period of fourteen days
Answer
B. It shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of the said period of fourteen days in the form in which it was passed by the House of the People
36
The satisfaction contemplated by Article 356 of the Constitution is in reality
Answer
A. The subjective satisfaction of the Union Council of Ministers
37
The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280
Answer
A. To make recommendations to the President as to the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes
38
Which of the Articles of the Constitution of India, providing for Fundamental Rights, cannot be suspended during Emergency?
Answer
C. Articles 20 and 21
39
The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office
Answer
C. By two-third majority of both the Houses of Parliament on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity
40
A resolution for the revocation of the proclamation of National Emergency may be moved by:
Answer
C. One-tenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha
41
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, was enacted by the Parliament under :
Answer
B. Article 253 of the Constitution of India
42
The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the country is :
Answer
D. Both Directive Principle of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a citizen
43
What percentage of area in the plain is recommended to be under forest as per the National Forest Policy?
Answer
A. 33 percent
44
India's Biological Diversity (BD) Act was enacted with the objective of :
Answer
D. All of the above
45
The agency empowered to lay down the standards for control of pollution of air, water and noise is :
Answer
A. Central Pollution Control Board
46
The Doctrine of Absolute Liability was evolved in :
Answer
B. Oleum Gas Leak case [AIR 1987 SC 1086]
47
Violations of the provisions of which one of the following statutes CANNOT be challenged before the National Green Tribunal?
Answer
B. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
48
Under which of the following circumstances, the Chief Wildlife Warden may grant permit for hunting wild animals as per the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
Answer
D. All the above
49
Which of the following is an "animal" as defined under section 2(1) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
Answer
D. All the above
50
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Answer
C. At the WTO, India's clear position regarding IPR on living matter is "no patents on life forms"
51
"Lay-off" may be for a period of :
Answer
D. No maximum time limit prescribed
52
An agreement entered into by collective bargaining under threat of strike is :
Answer
C. Enforceable under section 18 of the Industrial Disputes Act
53
Who among the following is a "dependent" of a deceased insured person as defined under section 2(6-A) of the Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948?
Answer
D. All the above
54
"Industrial dispute" is a dispute between :
Answer
D. All the above
55
Minimum wages is fixed under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 on the basis of :
Answer
A. Cost of Living Index
56
Who is an 'Adolescent' under the Factories Act, 1948?
Answer
D. Who has completed 15 years but below 18 years of age
57
Which of the following comes within the definition of 'strike' under section 2(q) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
Answer
C. Pen down or tool down strike
58
If any question arises as to the application or interpretation of a certified Standing Order, it may be referred to :
Answer
C. The Specified Labour Court
59
What is meant by 'bonus' for the purposes of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?
Answer
A. Profit bonus
60
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Answer
A. Overtime allowance comes within the meaning of "salary or wage" under section 2(21) of the Payment of Bonus Act
61
Doctrine of "Autrefois Acquit" and "Autrefois Convict" is also known as :
Answer
B. Rule against "double jeopardy"
62
Whoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person, is said to do that thing :
Answer
A. "Dishonestly"
63
A person who is habitually associated with any other or others for the purpose of committing robbery or child-stealing by means of or accompanied with murder, is called :
Answer
B. A 'thug'
64
'A', threatens to publish a defamatory statement concerning 'B' unless 'B' gives him money. He thus induces 'B' to give him money. What is the offence, if any, committed by 'A'?
Answer
C. Extortion
65
A conditional order for removal of nuisance can be made by :
Answer
C. A Sub-divisional Magistrate
66
The power to transfer criminal cases from one court to another court is conferred upon :
Answer
D. All the above
67
A question of 'foreign law' is a question of :
Answer
B. Fact
68
"A fact is not relevant under the law of evidence merely because it is similar to a fact in issue". But, a similar fact may be proved for the purpose of :
Answer
D. All the above
69
An admission contained in a letter marked "without prejudice" is NOT relevant :
Answer
A. In civil cases
70
A witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in open court. Such evidence under section 119 of the Indian Evidence Act is :
Answer
B. Oral evidence
71
Which of the following is NOT a quasi-judicial function?
Answer
B. Granting or withholding sanction by the Advocate General u/s 92 of C.P.C.
72
Which one of the following statements is false?
Answer
B. The judiciary maintains order and manages public services
73
According to the "No Evidence Rule"
Answer
B. In an administrative adjudication, if there is some evidence, the decision is valid no matter it may not be any evidence at all in accordance with accepted norms
74
On which of the following grounds, the validity of delegated legislation CANNOT be challenged?
Answer
D. Violation of the principles of natural justice
75
A superior police officer was appointed to conduct a departmental inquiry against a constable. In order to contradict the testimony of a witness, the presiding officer offered himself as a witness. The inquiry is vitiated on the ground of :
Answer
C. Personal bias
76
In which of the following cases, constitutionality of delegated legislation in India was upheld by the Supreme Court?
Answer
B. In re Delhi Laws Act case [AIR 1951 SC 332]
77
Which one of the following statements is true?
Answer
D. None of the above
78
The idea of "post-decisional hearing" was developed by the Supreme Court in :
Answer
A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India [AIR 1978 SC 597]
79
On which of the following grounds a writ of "certiorari" may be issued?
Answer
D. All of the above
80
Under Indian law, the State is :
Answer
D. Bound by a statutory provision unless excluded either expressly or by necessary implication language
81
The registration of GI under the provisions of the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 shall be for a period of
Answer
A. 10 years
82
Which of the following is FALSE with regard to copyright law in India?
Answer
D. Generally in the case of literary or musical works, the term of copyright is the life of the author plus 50 years
83
Which one of the following is non-patentable invention?
Answer
B. A method of agriculture or horticulture
84
Which among the following is NOT a ground of 'opposition' included under section 25(1) of the Patents Act?
Answer
C. The request for examination pursuant to the filing of the complete specification has not been made by the applicant
85
A complete patent specification shall disclose :
Answer
C. The best method of performing the invention
86
Compulsory License for export under Indian Patents Act is for :
Answer
B. Pharmaceutical products
87
Passing off is a :
Answer
A. Tort
88
Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
Answer
A. Under the Designs Act, 2000, classification is based on the material of which the article is made
89
Which of the following is NOT a criterion for registration under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001?
Answer
B. Utility
90
In a tort action for defamation, which of the following statements is correct, concerning information posted on the internet?
Answer
C. One of the initial problems to be dealt with is jurisdiction
91
The "Indian Computer Emergency Response Team" serves as :
Answer
C. The National Agency for incident response
92
A "Secure System", under the provisions of the Information Technology Act means computer hardware, software and procedure that :
Answer
D. all of the above
93
Domestic violence is essentially a
Answer
C. Human Rights issue for which the State has responsibility on the basis of due diligence standard
94
Which of the following change was brought in the position of women after the 2005 Amendment to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
Answer
C. Both the above
95
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the role of a "mediator"?
Answer
A. Helps the parties to reach a settlement
96
The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is based on :
Answer
B. UNCITRAL Model Law
97
The form of Alternate Dispute Resolution wherein the parties hire someone to review the evidence and make a decision that is binding upon the parties is called :
Answer
A. Arbitration
98
An arbitration agreement under section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 :
Answer
A. Shall be in writing
99
The provisions relating to which of the following has been introduced for the first time in India by the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
D. All of the above
100
Which school of jurisprudence stresses on the "politics of law" so as to be described as "legal leftism"?
Answer
B. Critical Legal Studies Movement
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