| Post Name | LECTURER IN MICROBIOLOGY - COLLEGIATE EDUCATION |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 011/2018/OL |
| Category Code | 428/2016 |
| Date of Test | 20 February 2018 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The social reformer who wrote Soundarayalahari
Answer
B. Sankaracharya
2
The movement started against the administrative reforms introduced in Travancore in 1932
Answer
A. Nivarthana Agitation
3
Barrister G.P. Pillai is associated with
Answer
A. Malayalee Memorial
4
Kumaran Asan's Veena Poovu was published for the first time in
Answer
D. Mitavadi
5
Which woman leader of Travancore organized the Female Volunteer Corps called Desasevika Sangham?
Answer
C. Accamma Cherian
6
The first woman to be the Chairperson of State Bank of India
Answer
D. Arundhati Bhattacharya
7
Who is the author of 'From earth to the Moon'?
Answer
B. Jules Verni
8
Storting is the name of the Parliament in
Answer
C. Norway
9
The recipient of Ezhuthachan Award 2017
Answer
A. Sachidanandhan
10
National Food Security Act was passed by Indian Parliament in the year
Answer
B. 2013
11
The concept of school complex was first started in __________.
Answer
B. Rajasthan
12
Father of Psychoanalysis is
Answer
C. Sigmund Freud
13
If a teacher happens to commit a mistake in class, what is the right choice he/she has to take?
Answer
B. admit it
14
Close-ended type questions are questions provided with
Answer
B. yes or no answers
15
You are adopting variety of tasks to ensure each and every students learning. Which theory would influence you more?
Answer
B. Gardner's multiple intelligence theory
16
A researcher does not fix the ultimate size of the sample in advance but determines according to mathematical decisions on the basis of information yielded as data collection progresses. This is technically called
Answer
C. Sequential sampling
17
Validity of a research can be ensured by 1. avoiding the extraneous variables 2. taking the true representation sample of the population 3. stratified sample 4. only field study
Answer
D. (1) and (2) correct
18
Rearrange the following in appropriate order : 1. Formulating hypothesis 2. Data analysis and interpretation 3. Developing research questions 4. Preparation of the report
Answer
D. 3, 1, 2, 4
19
Which of the following is not a characteristic of action research? i. Results are generalizable ii. Hypotheses were tested iii. Developed a theory iv. Data were qualitative
Answer
A. i, ii and iii
20
The research ethics means
Answer
A. the quality of the research
21
Which of the following is not a salient feature of Indian Constitution?
Answer
B. Presidential system
22
Economic and social planning is a subject included in the
Answer
A. Concurrent list
23
Article 19 (1) (c) of the Indian Constitution is related to
Answer
D. Right to form associations or unions
24
The UPSC have on July 19, 2000 constituted a committee to review the existing scheme of civil service examination under the chairmanship of __________.
Answer
A. Prof. Y.K. Alagh
25
Which of the following constitution amendment act is related with the disqualification of a member of either House of Parliament on the grounds of defection from his party?
Answer
B. The Constitution 52nd Amendment Act
26
''Record'' is defined under __________ of the Right to Information Act, 2005.
Answer
D. Section 2(i)
27
The day on which the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 received the assent of the President of India
Answer
B. 19th June 2012
28
The National Commission for Women shall consist of
Answer
D. A Chairperson, five other members and a member secretary
29
Which of the following programme was introduced to assist the poor families living below the poverty line in rural areas for taking up self employment?
Answer
C. Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
30
Chairperson and every member of the state food commission shall hold office for a term not exceeding ________.
Answer
A. Five years
31
Hopanoids are present in which part of bacterial cell?
Answer
A. Cell membrane
32
Standard reference text for bacterial classification
Answer
C. Bergey's manual
33
Volutin granules can be demonstrated by which of the following staining methods?
Answer
D. Albert's stain
34
Which one of the following is a test for diagnosis of typhoid?
Answer
B. Widal test
35
The temperature and holding period for routine autoclaving are
Answer
B. 121°C for 15 minutes
36
Which of the following staining techniques is used to demonstrate Spirochaetes in tissues?
Answer
Question Cancelled
37
The term Iatrogenic infection is also known as
Answer
A. Physician induced infection
38
________ is a major component of biogas.
Answer
D. Methane
39
Phenyl acetic acid added to the fermentation media for penicillin production is a
Answer
C. Precursor
40
Baffles are used in fermenters for providing
Answer
B. Agitation
41
You are provided with a sputum sample of a suspected case of tuberculosis. The smear prepared with the sample is stained with which of the following staining methods.
Answer
D. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
42
Numerical taxonomy is otherwise called as __________.
Answer
A. Adansonian classification
43
Carboxysomes is the site fore which of the following reactions?
Answer
B. CO₂ fixation
44
String test is used to identify which of the following bacteria?
Answer
A. Vibrio spp.
45
Cholera red reaction is due to which of the following?
Answer
C. Indole and nitrate reduction test
46
DPT is used for protection against
Answer
D. Diphtheria, whooping cough and tetanus
47
Which of the following is called 'the millionaire molecule'?
Answer
A. IgM
48
Bence Jones protein is associated with which of the following diseases?
Answer
B. Multiple myeloma
49
Weil-Felix test is used for the diagnosis of which of the following diseases?
Answer
C. Typhus fevers
50
Smallest unit of antigenicity is known as __________.
Answer
D. Epitope
51
Pasteurization is defined as _______________.
Answer
C. Heating to 71.7°C for 15 seconds
52
Hybridomas can be isolated using which of the following media?
Answer
A. Hypoxanthine-Aminopterin-Thymidine medium
53
Shingles is caused by reactivation of which of the following viruses?
Answer
B. Varicella Zoster virus
54
Lyophilization is otherwise called
Answer
D. Freeze drying
55
Which one of the following is a capsulated pathogenic yeast?
Answer
D. Cryptococcus neoformans
56
Penicillin is an example for a ________.
Answer
C. β-lactam antibiotic
57
Gram stained smear a of CSF sample shows the presence of gram negative diplococci. Which one of the following the organisms is most likely to be isolated from the sample?
Answer
B. N. meningitidis
58
Nitrogen fixing symbiotic organism present in the leaves of Azolla is
Answer
A. Anabaena
59
Denitrification refers to which of the following processes?
Answer
C. Conversion of nitrates to nitrogen
60
Which one of the following is considered to be an indicator of water pollution?
Answer
B. E. Coli
61
Phosphatase test is used to test the efficacy of which of the following processes?
Answer
A. Pasteurization
62
Which of the following is not used for disinfection of water?
Answer
D. Mercuric chloride
63
Botulinum toxin acts by which of the following mechanism?
Answer
C. Blocks the release of acetylcholine, at the neuromuscular junction
64
Which of the following is considered to be the optimum temperature range for the growth of psychrophiles?
Answer
D. 0-15°C
65
Which of the following is not used for the cultivation of viruses?
Answer
B. Blood agar
66
Citric acid production is done with the help of which of the following
Answer
A. Aspergillus niger
67
Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate antibiotic sensitivity?
Answer
C. Stokes' method
68
Strain improvement for industrial fermentation can be achieved by which of the following methods
Answer
D. All of the above
69
Downstream process is used for
Answer
A. Extraction of product
70
Hiss's serum water medium is used to study fermentation reactions in case of which of the following bacteria?
Answer
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
71
The colonies of E. coli growing on EMB agar appear as _________.
Answer
A. Dark centered colonies with green metallic sheen
72
Flagella seen in Vibrio cholerae can be described as __________.
Answer
D. Single polar flagellum
73
Which of the following descriptions best suits a mycorrhizae?
Answer
C. Symbiotic association between a fungus and roots of a vascular plant
74
Nisin is defined as which one of the following?
Answer
B. Peptide, lantibiotic used as food preservative
75
The ratio of the water vapour pressure of food substrate to the vapour pressure of pure water at the same temperature is known as __________.
Answer
A. Water activity
76
Azotobacter is
Answer
C. free living bacteria which can fix nitrogen
77
Secondary metabolites are produced during which phase of growth cycle of a microbe?
Answer
B. Stationary phase
78
The term 12D treatment refers to which of the following processes?
Answer
D. a 10¹² reduction in C. botulinum endospores
79
Which one of the following reactions is considered to be undesirable in the process of wine-making?
Answer
B. Conversion of ethanol to acetic acid
80
You have isolated a non-motile gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. This cell will definitely posses which of the following?
Answer
A. Ribosome
81
Spirochaetes move with the help of which of the following?
Answer
C. axial filaments
82
Branching filamentous bacteria are known as ___________.
Answer
D. Actinomycetes
83
Leprosy is known as
Answer
B. Hansen's disease
84
The Ghon complex, a lesion in the lung and regional lymph node is found in which of the following diseases?
Answer
A. Primary tuberculosis
85
Bile esculin test is used to distinguish which of the following bacteria?
Answer
D. Group D streptococci
86
Which of the following is a predatory bacteria?
Answer
C. Bdellovibro
87
Kauffmann-White Scheme is used for serotyping of which of the following bacteria?
Answer
A. Salmonella
88
MacConkey's agar is a
Answer
B. selective and differential medium
89
Physiologically and metabolically uniform cell population is obtained during which of the following phases of growth
Answer
C. Log phase
90
Which of the following methods is used to sterilise L-J medium?
Answer
D. Inspissation
91
Malaria is caused by which of the following?
Answer
D. Plasmodium
92
Rabies is caused by
Answer
B. Rhabdovirus
93
Candida albicans does not show which the following characteristics?
Answer
C. Tuberculate spores
94
When an infective female Anopheles mosquito bites a human being which of the following is introduced into the human body?
Answer
A. Sporozoites
95
Which of the following is not usually used for cultivation of fungi?
Answer
A. Cell culture
96
Characteristic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies associated with rabies virus infection is known as ___________.
Answer
B. Negri bodies
97
Which of the following tests are used as confirmatory test for diagnosis of HIV infection?
Answer
D. Western Blot
98
Eijkman test is carried out at which the following temperatures?
Answer
C. 44°C
99
Otomycosis refers to infection of which part of the body?
Answer
B. ear
100
Which of the following is used for determination of efficacy of moist-heat sterilisation?
Answer
D. spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus
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