| Post Name | LECTURER IN TEXTILE TECHNOLOGY |
|---|---|
| Department | TECHNICAL EDUCATION- POLYTECHNIC COLLEGES |
| Question Paper Code | 034/2016/OL |
| Category Code | 414/2014 |
| Date of Test | 16 March 2016 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
To which agency of the UNO was India re-elected for a six year term in November 2015?
Answer
D. UNCITRAL
2
Which section of the Factories Act 1948 was amended vide the Factories (Amendment) Bill, 2015 of Maharashtra?
Answer
C. 66(1)(C)
3
The Mahatma Gandhi International Centre which was inaugurated by the President of Sri Lanka Mr. Maithripala Sirisena on 22nd November 2015 is located at
Answer
A. Matale
4
What is the percentage of population in India below the age of 19 as per the 2011 census?
Answer
D. 41
5
Which Indian state won the National Wheelchair Basketball Championship held in 2015?
Answer
B. Maharashtra
6
Which was the new species of tree frog identified by a group of researchers in Western Ghats of Idukki in November 2015?
Answer
B. Ghatixalus Magnus
7
Nature Microbiology journal has warned that the bacteria, Burkholdenia Pseudomallei will pose a serious threat to India in the immediate future. Name the disease which is caused by this bacteria.
Answer
A. Meliodosis
8
The Chinese translation of which literary work by Rabindra Nath Tagore was withdrawn by the publishers in 2015 citing 'Poor Quality Translation'?
Answer
C. Stray Birds
9
Who is the author of the work 'The Gospel of Mary Magdalena and Me' which was considered for Man Booker Prize in 2014?
Answer
A. Rethy Devi
10
The book 'The Name of God is Mercy' by Pope Francis is written in the form of a conversation between the Pope and a journalist. Who is that journalist?
Answer
D. Andrea Tornielli
11
Which of the following combination will give an effective resistance of 4Ω, if three resistances of values 2Ω, 3Ω and 6Ω are available?
Answer
D. Parallel combination of 3Ω and 6Ω resistance in series with 2Ω resistance
12
An ohmmeter indicates zero ohms when connected across an inductor. The inductor is
Answer
D. Shorted
13
To increase the amount of current in a resistor from 60 mA to 80 mA by changing the 12V source, what should the new voltage setting be?
Answer
C. 16V
14
The resistance of earth wire should be
Answer
A. Very low
15
A series RLC circuit with XL = 25 ohm, XC = 35 ohm, and R = 10 ohm carries an effective current of 5 A. Calculate the power dissipated in watts of a series RLC circuit
Answer
B. 250
16
The lighting methods in increasing order of power consumption are
Answer
C. LED, CFL, Incandescent
17
The rms value of a full wave rectified wave is ________ that of a sine wave with the same peak value.
Answer
A. Same as
18
A battery with a 100 Ah rating can deliver
Answer
B. 5A for 20 hours
19
Mobile data indicators in increasing order of speed are
Answer
D. G, E, 3G, H
20
An 8 bit microcontroller has
Answer
A. 8-bit data bus
21
The range of compression ratio that can be used in a spark ignition IC engine is ________.
Answer
A. 6:1 - 10:1
22
The size of fly wheel in a two stroke cycle engine when compared to that in a four stroke cycle engine having same capacity is _________.
Answer
C. Lighter than that of four stroke cycle engine
23
A gear box is provided in an automobile to vary the _________ on the road wheels.
Answer
B. Torque
24
If the head available in a proposed hydro-electric power project is 7-15 m of water, then the type of hydraulic turbine suitable for this project is __________.
Answer
D. Kaplan turbine
25
The _________ is the thermodynamic vapour power cycle based on which a steam turbine in a steam power plant works.
Answer
C. Rankine cycle
26
A is an n × n matrix, K is a scalar and |KA| = r|A|, then the value of r is
Answer
C. Kⁿ
27
For the function f(x) = x²e⁻ˣ, the maximum occurs when x is equal to
Answer
A. 2
28
The value of ∫₀^{π/4} sec⁴(x) dx is
Answer
B. 4/3
29
For the differential equation dy/dx + 5y = 0, with y(0) = 1, the general solution is
Answer
D. e⁻⁵ˣ
30
The area bounded by the curve y = log x, the x-axis and the ordinates at x = 1 and x = 2 is
Answer
A. log 4 − 1
31
The coefficients of three consecutive terms in the expansion of (1 + x)ⁿ are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5, then the value of n is
Answer
C. 7
32
Line through the points (−2, 6) and (4, 8) is perpendicular to the line through the points (k, 24) and (8, 12); then the value of k is
Answer
B. 4
33
The value of (sin x − sin y)/(cos x + cos y) is
Answer
A. tan((x − y)/2)
34
If the line y = 3x + c is a tangent to the curve y = 2x², then the value of c is
Answer
D. −9/8
35
The solution of the simultaneous equations 5x + 3y + 3z = 48; 2x + 6y − 3z = 18; 8x − 3y + 2z = 21 is
Answer
B. x = 3, y = 5, z = 6
36
As per IS specifications the initial setting time of OPC shall not be less than
Answer
B. 30 minutes
37
Concrete strength depends upon
Answer
A. Water cement ratio
38
The strongest bond in brick masonry is
Answer
A. English bond
39
Total number of links in a 30m chain should be
Answer
B. 150
40
Reduced level of a points is its elevation with respect to
Answer
C. Datum surface
41
The major contributions to weight of a mature cotton fibre is due to
Answer
D. Secondary Wall
42
Pick the odd one out
Answer
B. Viscose
43
Medulla is generally found in
Answer
D. Coarse wool
44
Which of the following fibre with highest moisture regain will exhibit highest wet/dry tenacity?
Answer
B. Lyocell
45
The highest elastic recovery is exhibited by
Answer
C. Lycra
46
Polyacrylonitrile polymer can be produced by using
Answer
D. Solution polymerization
47
Density of cotton fibre is approximately
Answer
D. 1.52 g/cm³
48
Correct sequence of major steps for production of viscose fibre is
Answer
C. Steeping-Shredding-Ageing-Xanthation-Dissolution-Ripening-Spinning
49
Which combination is not correct?
Answer
D. Nomex - Excellent Mechanical Properties
50
Which of the following statement is correct?
Answer
C. Glauber salt is used in direct dye on cotton as exhausting agent and acid dye on wool as leveling agent
51
Dispersing agent is used in disperse dye for polyester
Answer
D. To prevent precipitation of disperse dye
52
Which is the true condition for reduction of vat dye?
Answer
A. Redox potential of the dye bath must be higher than the dye
53
CSP of yarn is equal to the product of
Answer
A. Yarn count (Ne) and lea strength (lbf)
54
The trash content of cotton as fed to a beater is 3.6%. The waste extraction is 1.5% of which 80% is trash. The cleaning efficiency % of beater is
Answer
B. 33.3%
55
What type of hooks are preferentially removed in roller drafting?
Answer
B. Trailing
56
Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
D. All of these
57
In case of cotton, AFIS can be used to measure
Answer
C. Maturity
58
A carding machine working at 90% efficiency has doffer speed 42 m/min and production rate 10.6 kg/hr. Assuming no draft between doffer and delivery roller, find the density of sliver in ktex.
Answer
D. 5
59
As compared to the yarn fault A1, the fault D4 is
Answer
C. Thicker and longer
60
On a ring frame, the spindle speed is 16,000 rpm. If the yarn twist is 8 turns per cm and winding on circumference is 4 cm, the traveler rpm would be
Answer
B. 15840
61
In a comber, if the feeding takes place when the nippers are going backwards, it is called
Answer
B. Reverse feed
62
For a balanced twist two fold yarn, F/S twist ratio i.e. folding twist/spinning twist =
Answer
A. 2/3
63
Bobbin leading mechanism is preferred over flyer lead mechanism in roving frame because
Answer
C. Both of these
64
The most suitable yarn out of followings to run at warping/weaving will be
Answer
A. Tenacity = 22 gpt, Strength CV = 8%
65
The wasted movement in a loom is maximum in case of
Answer
A. Bottom closed shed
66
In case of surface driven winding package, as the winding proceeds, angle of wind
Answer
C. remains constant
67
In a sizing process, if add-on % is 14% and size paste concentration is 16%, the Wet pick-up% would be
Answer
A. 88%
68
Arrange 20 Ne, 20 Nm and 20 tex yarn in increasing order of fineness
Answer
B. 20 Nm, 20 Ne, 20 tex
69
A loom is designed to run at 440 ppm. If the fabric width is 2.5 m and weft crimp on loom is 6%, calculate weft insertion rate in m/min
Answer
C. 1166 m/min
70
Which of the following knitted fabrics are visually different on face and back sides?
Answer
A. Plain
71
A cotton woven fabric has 25 ends per cm and 28 picks per cm. The tex of warp and weft yarn are 30 and 15 respectively. Calculate the gsm of the fabric, assuming warp and weft crimp to be 12% and 6% respectively.
Answer
D. 129
72
The maximum twist loss occurring in weft yarn on latest air jet weaving machine is
Answer
A. 14%
73
Under lap of warp knitted fabric is basically equivalent to
Answer
B. Sinker loop
74
The advantage/s of electronic jacquard over mechanical jacquard is/are
Answer
D. All of the these
75
Tip to tip transfer of weft takes place in
Answer
D. Dewas system
76
The speed of yarn in m/sec on a 30 rpm 30 inch diameter 20 gauge rib machine knitting 2 mm loop length is approximately
Answer
A. 1.8
77
The application of a series of stitches or stitch types to one or several thicknesses of the material is called
Answer
B. Seam
78
The technique used to reduce or enlarge a given size pattern is called
Answer
B. Grading
79
According to British Standard classification of stitches, lockstitch comes under
Answer
B. Class 300
80
The part of the sewing machine that moves the fabric along by a predetermined amount between successive stitches is called
Answer
C. Feed Dog
81
____________ stitch is frequently used on long seams in trousers.
Answer
B. Multi-thread chain stitch
82
Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
B. In a lock stitch machine, the needle thread operates at a much higher tension than the bobbin thread
83
Choose the correct set of statements : P. Denim is a weft faced twill cloth made from dyed warp and grey weft yarn Q. Leno weaves are made from doup and standard threads, which are made to cross each other between picks R. Sateen is a warp faced fabric S. Repp is a plain weave fabric with a prominently weft way rib made from two warps and two wefts
Answer
C. Q, S
84
The steep angled twill can be designed
Answer
D. both of these
85
Terry weaves belong to
Answer
A. Warp pile structures
86
__________ weaving comes under Extra weft figuring.
Answer
B. Swivel
87
The primary distinction between a design principle and a design element is
Answer
A. that principles are abstract and elements are concrete
88
Design and lifting plan look alike for
Answer
A. straight draft
89
Which one is not a measure of Central Tendency
Answer
B. Mean deviation
90
Approximate moisture regain of acrylic fibre under standard conditions is
Answer
C. 2%
91
Presence of immature fibre in a sample of cotton fibre will have following effect on passage of air in the sample (at a constant pressure head)
Answer
B. Decrease air flow
92
Elmendorf tearing strength tester measures
Answer
A. Energy loss
93
U%, as measured by Uster Evenness Tester is
Answer
C. PMD of mass variations
94
One Kilogram of a 20 tex yarn will have a length of
Answer
D. 50 Km
95
Two roving with a CV of 8% each are fed into a spinning zone and if the spinning unit adds 8% CV, the CV% of output yarn will be approximately?
Answer
A. 9.8%
96
An eccentric top roller in a drafting system leads to
Answer
D. Oscillation of nip line only
97
The angle of projectile weaving machine from front to back is
Answer
D. 4°
98
Erection tools and equipments used for projectile weaving machine is/are
Answer
C. Zero error adjustable spirit level and jack
99
Total Base Number (TBN) which is important for deciding discard of oil (Lubricants) decreases due to
Answer
C. Both of these
100
Bearings are to be used to meet following requirements (i) High speed rotation (ii) Low vibrations (iii) Low friction Which one is best suited to meet above requirements?
Answer
A. Deep groove ball bearing
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