| Post Name | Lecturer in Textile Technology - Technical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 080/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 238/2023 |
| Date of Test | 3 July 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A textile fibre with high tenacity will able to
Answer
B. Withstand heavy pulling force
2
Fibres with rough surfaces will
Answer
B. show high fibre to fibre cohesion
3
Elasticity refer to fibre's ability to
Answer
A. stretching and immediate recovery
4
Which group of the fibres listed below decrease tenacity when wet?
Answer
C. Wool and Viscose
5
Which one is correct among the following relative order of degree of crystallinity for the listed fibres?
Answer
Question Cancelled
6
bleaching of cotton is carried out
Answer
C. At 80° - 85° C, at alkaline 10 - 11
7
Cotton fabric dyed with a reactive dye show excellent colour-fastness to wash, but show poor colour fastness to
Answer
D. Chlorine water fastness
8
Arrange the following in order of decreasing breaking extension among Silk, Cotton, Jute and Wool
Answer
C. Wool > Silk > Cotton > Jute
9
Which properties are decreased in textile fabrics that have subjected to durable-press or wash-n-wear finish?
Answer
D. All of the above
10
Low dimensional stability and felting of wool is due to
Answer
C. Directional frictional effect of Scales present in wool
11
Mercerisation of cotton fabric is carried out using - at the following conditions
Answer
D. 17.5% - 20% (w/w) NaOH solution, at room temperature under tension
12
The presence of metal ion during bleaching - causes
Answer
C. Increase in rate of peroxide decomposition locally where the metal ion acts strongly causing damage to the fabric at that part
13
Optical brightening agents works in the following principle to improve whiteness of the fabric
Answer
B. It absorbs specific UV-component of sun light and emit blue light in visible region to improve whiteness of the fabric
14
Choose the correct set of given Melting point and Glass transition temperatures for any of the particular fibres :
Answer
D. Polypropelene - is 165° c, and is -20° c
15
Which type of feed yarn is preferred for draw-texturing to be done by false twist technique?
Answer
B. Partially oriented yarn having Low crystallinity and Low softening temperature and low residual draw ratio
16
Arrange the following fibres according the decreasing order of tensile strength - Tick Correct Option of order amongst options 1, 2, 3 and 4 given below : Fibre type Decreasing order of tensile strength of the mentioned fibres
Answer
A. (a) Cotton (1) (d), (a), (b), (c)
17
Match the following Specific high performance textile fibres and their special end uses for designing and manufacturing specific Technical / functional textile products : Fibre type End Uses/Technical Textile Products type (m) Kevlar/Nomex Fibres (w) High Temperature Resistant Composites (n) Carbon Fibres (x) Factory Chimney's Fire Retardant Hot Smoke Filter Bag (o) Elastane/Spandex/Lycra Fibres (y) Dense woven light weight umbrella and rain-coat fabrics (p) Microdenier Polyester Fibres (z) Stretch to Fit wear clothing with blends of other fibres Tick Correct Option amongst 1, 2, 3 and 4 as given below :
Answer
B. mx, nw, oz, py
18
Match the following Dyeing Process for specific class of dye and suitable class of Dyeing auxiliaries to be used for that dyeing : Dye Class and Dyeing process Main Dyeing Auxialiries used (m) Direct Dyeing of Cotton (w) Formic Acid (n) Reactive Dyeing of Cotton (x) Dispersing agent (o) Acid Dyeing of Wool (y) Common Salt (p) Disperse Dyeing of Polyester (z) Sodium Hydroxide Tick Correct Option options amongst 1, 2, 3 and 4 :
Answer
A. my, nz, ow, px
19
Match the following Chemicals used for pigment printing of Textiles with the specific purpose of using that Chemical in preparing print paste for pigment printing of textiles : Main Printing chemicals and auxialary Purpose of using specific chemicals in print paste used in preparing pigment print paste (m) Acramin SLN emulsion (w) To Prepare oil in water Thickener (n) DAP (Di-Ammonium Phosphate) (x) Binder to fix colour and all at designed part (o) Fixer-CCL (Melamin Formaldehyde (y) Catalyst to catalyse binder to fix to the Fibre Resin) (p) Kerosine / Whit Oil (z) Colour Fixation agent to improve rub- fastness Tick Correct Option options amongst 1, 2, 3 and 4 :
Answer
D. mx, ny, oz, pw
20
Match the following Chemical Finishes of textiles with the suitable class of Chemical agent to be used for that finish : Finish type Main Chemical class used for those Finishes (m) Crease Resistant Finish (w) Poly-oxo ethylene (n) Softening (x) Dimethyl Poly-Silioxane (o) Fire Retardancy finish (y) DMDHEU resin (p) Water Repellant Finish (z) Phosphate + Urea Tick Correct Option options amongst 1, 2, 3 and 4 :
Answer
C. my, nw, oz, px
21
Transfer efficiency is defined as
Answer
D. The amount of fiber transferred from the cylinder to the differ per rotation of the cylinder
22
The degrees of combing, 'half combing', which involves
Answer
B. Up to 9% noil is extracted
23
The development of linear programming technique (LPT) is associated with
Answer
A. For Cotton Mixing
24
Determine the Intensity of opening of a beater having a production rate of 500 Kg/h and beater speed of 400 rpm. Number of teeth is approximately 23000
Answer
B. 0.906 mg
25
Doffing disposition typical arrangement between
Answer
C. Taker in and cylinder
26
Yarn fault Neppy yarn in the ring yarn states
Answer
A. Very short fault of more than 200% of the yarn diameter
27
Which process is considered as the heart of the spinning process?
Answer
B. Carding
28
The CV% of 3-ply yarn produced using a single yarn CV of 8.6% will be approximately ______
Answer
C. 4.97
29
The diameters of the back, middle, and front rollers are 27 mm, 27 mm, and 30 mm, respectively. The break and main draft of the ring frame are 1.14 and 20, respectively. Find out the wave length of the fault in cm if the back roller of the ring frame is eccentric
Answer
C. 193.30 cm
30
The section of circumferential surface that does the combing is called
Answer
A. The half-lap
31
According to the ASTM (ASTM, 1994, 1995), "one or more fibres occurring in a tangled and unorganized mass" is defined as
Answer
C. nep
32
Match the items in List I with those in List II : (a) Yarn hairiness 1. Floating fibre (b) Drafting wave 2. Eccentric bottom roller (c) Roller slip 3. Spinning triangle (d) Periodic variation 4. Low roller pressure 5. Immatured fibre 6. Short fibre Codes :
Answer
B. (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
33
In term of degrees shore associated with
Answer
D. Roller hardness
34
Determine the yarn realization percentage of 26 Ne carded yarn. Blow room waste : 5.4%; card waste : 4.5%; sweep waste : 1.4%; pneumafil and roller waste (ring frames) : 2%; and invisible loss : 0.5%
Answer
C. 88.2%
35
The achievable Carded yarn CSP for a given FQI of cotton under optimum twist factor is given by the expression, where C is the count spun
Answer
A. Lea CSP = 320(√FQI + 1) - 13C
36
The breaking force of the material under test, divided by the linear density of the unstrained material, is called
Answer
C. Tenacity
37
Blending homogeneity could be expressed as
Answer
A. Index of blend irregularity
38
In the Murata air-jet spinning system
Answer
C. Counter clockwise vortex is set up in jet 1 to give a Z-S false-twisting action, and a clockwise vortex in jet 2 gives an S-Z action
39
The majority of the seed particles are eliminated in
Answer
B. Card
40
In ISO standards, approximately defining the traveller number as the mass in grams of
Answer
C. 1000 Traveller
41
In case of drum-driven winder, the wind per double traverse with time
Answer
C. Decreases
42
In stockport systems the reed count is expressed as
Answer
B. Number of dents/2''
43
If the warp beam contains 550 ends and length of warp is 10500 yards and count is 21 Ne, what is the weight of warp in kilograms?
Answer
B. 148.8 Kg
44
In case of 500 end double lift single cylinder Jacquard consists of
Answer
D. 1000 hooks and 500 needles
45
Find out the loom speed and weft insertion rate of loom if the average velocity of the shuttle is 40 Km/hr and the degree of crank shaft rotation available for the shuttle across the shed is 135°, shuttle length is 40 cm and the width of the warp in the reed is 1.5 mtrs
Answer
A. 104.15 picks/min and 249.96 m/min
46
In case of double lift single Jacquard machine to control one warp end
Answer
C. Two griffe and two hooks are used
47
The production rate of non woven is highest in the following technique
Answer
A. Spun bonding
48
The weft density at selvedges is doubled in case of
Answer
C. Tucked-in-selvedges
49
Higher the stretch on the yarn during sizing process affects
Answer
A. Increases the breakage rate and reduces weaving efficiency
50
The loop length in a flat bed knitting machine is controlled by
Answer
B. Stitch cam
51
In shuttle less weaving machines in terms of weft insertion rate which of the following is correct
Answer
A. Multiphase > Air Jet > Water Jet > Projectile
52
The process of sizing of warp yarns
Answer
A. Improves weaveability
53
The ratio of the length of crank to the length of connecting rod increases leads to
Answer
D. Increase in Sley Eccentricity
54
In air jet weaving the propelling force generated for insertion of weft is independent of the
Answer
C. Strength of the yarn
55
In weft knitted fabrics of the same mass per unit area produced from the same yarns, the structure which will give the highest thickness is
Answer
D. Inter lock
56
To produce Non wovens using Hydro entanglement technique the types of fibre preferred is
Answer
A. Hydrophilic, fine and oval in cross section
57
The Jacquard has 400 hooks and designed to weave a fabric with 32 ends/cm. Then the size of the repeat would be
Answer
B. 12.5 cm
58
In high speed warping machine Quick response powerful brake is necessary "select the incorrect reason from the following" :
Answer
A. Machine vibrations can be minimised
59
The lightest fibre amongest the following is
Answer
A. Ultra high molecular weight polyethylene
60
For bicycle frames made of composites which of the following fibre is highly preferred as reinforcement
Answer
D. Carbon
61
The square set fabric with same rate of advancement in both directions gives the twill angle of _________
Answer
A. 45 degree
62
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to point draft in fabric design? (i) Number of heald shafts used in about two times less than the warp repeat of the weave. (ii) Larger strain on warp, leading to low loom efficiency. (iii) Each end is drawn in separate heald up to half of the design, and reversed thereof. (iv) Increased in figuring capacity.
Answer
Question Cancelled
63
The draft employed for production of check and stripe designs, in which the stripes have different weaves or their combinations is _________
Answer
B. Grouped draft
64
Which of these factors gives more prominence to the twill lines in fabric with twill weave design? (i) 3/1 twill design (ii) 2/2 twill design (iii) Z twill with Z twist yarn (iv) Z twill with S twist yarn
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iv)
65
Among these, which can be the repeat size and the draft of Brighton honey comb weave?
Answer
A. 12 × 12 with straight draft
66
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to honey comb weave fabric?
Answer
D. Both the warp and the weft threads float freely on both sides
67
The loom equipment necessary for manufacturing pique structures with wadded designs are _________ (i) Dobby loom with two warp beams (ii) Loose reed beat up mechanism (iii) Fast reed beat up mechanism (iv) 2 X 2 drop box
Answer
D. Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
68
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to the wadding ends in bed ford cords?
Answer
A. Wadding ends are generally finer than principal warp yarns
69
Which of the following method is/are used to construct self stitched double cloths? (i) Stitching from face to back (ii) Stitching from back to face (iii) Combination stitching
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
70
The fabrics constructed by reversing a small unit of the weave, in which the weaves are in sections and tend to oppose each other is _________
Answer
B. Perforated fabrics
71
Garments can be classified as panty wear, cargo pant, thigh wear and stockings based on the ___________
Answer
C. Length of garment
72
According to the Eight head theory, _________ head is important for full length garments like trousers
Answer
C. 7th
73
All the patterns in the marker plan should be kept such that the grain line in the pattern should be parallel to the fabric selvedge for __________
Answer
A. Better hanging and draping of garments
74
_________ is the upper part of the feeding combination that holds/grips the fabric in place for the feeding action and stitch formation
Answer
D. Presser foot
75
__________ is normally engaged for accurate cutting of the finest shapes of garment components
Answer
B. Band knife
76
As per ISO 4916 : 1991 system of seam classification, the class 2 seam refers to _________
Answer
C. Lapped seam
77
According to the British standard, _________ is categorized as hand stitches
Answer
B. Class 200
78
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to type of pressing of garments? (i) Top pressing refers to the finishing operation which garment undergoes after being completely assembled. (ii) Edge pressing before top-stitching comes in the category of top pressing. (iii) Electric steam iron can be used for under pressing operation.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (iii)
79
Which principle of fashion design refers to the contrasting colour such as black dress with white collar in the garment?
Answer
D. Emphasis
80
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to fashion design? (i) Decorative designs are drawn by the beginners as well as boutique designers (ii) Decorative design does not need a croque (iii) Structural design is the fundamental component of design (iv) Structural designs are drawn by the designers in the buying house
Answer
A. Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
81
The method used for sampling the fibres in a yarn
Answer
A. Cut square method
82
The type of distribution curve which is symmetrical about a central value
Answer
C. Bell shaped distribution curve
83
Which factor do not affect the moisture regain of textile products.
Answer
D. Sample size
84
When 2.5% span length of cotton sample was measured on a fibrograph, the result was 25 mm. This indicates.
Answer
C. 2.5% of fibres clamped are 25 mm or longer
85
The micronaire value of a cotton sample is dependent on both the fibre
Answer
B. Fineness and Maturity
86
Short fibre content referred to as Short Fibre Index (SFI) is derived by the instrument
Answer
D. HVI
87
In the tex count system, the relationship that results between twist, twist factor, and yarn count is
Answer
C. Twist per metre = Twist factor/√tex
88
In classimat yarn faults classification A2 counts all faults shorter than 1 cm whose linear density is more than __________ of the average linear density of
Answer
D. 150%
89
In a zweigle yarn hairiness tester the number of hairs is counted simultaneously by a set of
Answer
A. Photocells
90
The fabric weight per square meter is calculated using following the formula
Answer
C. GSM = weight of sample in grams × 10,000 / area of sample in cm²
91
Elmendorf tear tester pendulum is having the maximum potential energy
Answer
C. When the moving clamp is in alignment with fixed clamp
92
In ICI pilling box testing the pilling grade rating 4 gives sample descriptions as
Answer
B. Slight change
93
The correction factor of divergence of light rays (K) for calculating the area of drape pattern is
Answer
B. 0.91
94
The needle bearings are used in
Answer
D. Bottom drafting roller
95
The lowest temperature at which a lubricant gives off enough vapour and ignites for a moment when a small flame is brought near it
Answer
A. Flash point
96
In a micrometer one division on the thimble represent
Answer
A. 0.01 mm
97
The knife edge approach of static balance is very effective for
Answer
C. Light weight single plane rotor operating at low speed
98
The good value of illumination recommended for blow room implemented by all modern mills in India is
Answer
A. 200 lux
99
These store items needed for a spinning mill are reviewed according to a review calendar established by the store and purchase department
Answer
A. Standard consumables
100
The vane anemometer gives the air flow measurement inside a cotton weaving mill in the speed range of
Answer
B. 0.3 to 5 m/s
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.