| Post Name | Legal Assistant Gr II |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 133/2025 |
| Category Code | 481/2024, 726/2024, 727/2024, 728/2024 |
| Date of Test | 23 October 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The father of analytical jurisprudence :
Answer
B. John Austin
2
The characteristic that is not of ‘Legal Positivism’ :
Answer
C. Laws are valid because they are rooted in natural law principles
3
The author of the book “The Concept of Law” :
Answer
A. H.L.A. Hart
4
The principle of stare decisis primarily promotes :
Answer
B. Judicial restraint and legal stability
5
Prospective overruling is associated with which legal concept?
Answer
C. The desire to limit the impact of judicial decisions on the past
6
Which of the following suites best for a ‘legal right’?
Answer
C. An enforceable claim or entitlement recognized by law
7
Possession refers to :
Answer
B. Physical control
8
Which rule interpretation deals with the object and purpose of a law?
Answer
B. Purposive rule
9
The principle ‘Noscitur a sociis’ means :
Answer
D. Both
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
A. ,
11
Which of the following statements is not correct in respect of Article 33 of the
Constitution of India?
Answer
D. The President exercising the powers under Article 356 is competent to make a
law as contemplated under Article 33
12
The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office :
Answer
C. In like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
13
Article 38 does not enjoin the State :
Answer
B. To strive to promote the spirit of common brotherhood
14
Which one of the following is not included in the institutions of the self-government in
the urban area as per Article 243 Q, Constitution of India?
Answer
B. A Zila Panchayat for district level transitional area
15
What is incorrect about the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)?
Answer
C. The existing National Commission for Scheduled Castes was set up under the
Ministry of Welfare’s Resolution of 1987
16
Choose the incorrect statement
It shall be the duty of the Finance Commission to make recommendations to the
President as to :
Answer
D. Any matter referred to the Commission by the Governor in the interests of
sound finance in the State
17
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
Answer
C. Article 345 bars declaring one or more of the languages in use in the State, in
addition to Hindi, as the second official language
18
Choose the correct option :
The Constitution (Eighty-Sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 made the following changes :
(i) Inserted Article 21A. “The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all
children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by
law, determine”.
(ii) Added Clause (k) in Article 51 A – “who is a parent or guardian to provide
opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the
age of six and fourteen years”
(iii) Inserted Article 350 A – “It shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local
authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the
mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic
minority groups”
(iv) Substituted Article 45 – “The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care
and education for all children until they complete the age of six years”
Answer
D. Only (i), (ii), (iv)
19
According to Article 279A, which of the following statements is not correct regarding the
validity of the GST Council’s acts or proceedings?
Answer
B. Any procedural irregularity automatically invalidates Council’s proceedings
20
Which of the following statements is correct relating to the advisory function of the
Supreme Court under Article 143 (1) of the Constitution of India?
Answer
D. The President’s opinion as to the question being of public importance is not
open to question.
133/2025 6 A
21
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the concerning of administrative
law itself with several official actions?
(i) Quasi-legislative action and quasi-judicial action
(ii) Rule application as well as pure administrative action
(iii) Actions in nature of investigatory, supervisory, advisory, declaratory and
prosecutory
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
22
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Administrative law?
(i) Administrative law is treated as ‘Dharma’ as it helps to lead the stability and
growth of society
(ii) Administrative law is in favour of the concept of ‘growth with liberty’ for making
society as civilized
(iii) Administrative law does not have any role on private sector as administrative law
is not treated as means to an end
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
23
Which of the following statement is/are not correct about the impermissible delegation?
(i) Framing of rules
(ii) Modification
(iii) Retrospective operation as well as essential legislative functions
Answer
C. Only (i)
24
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the modern concept of rule of law?
(i) Law and order
(ii) Fairness and Elimination of discretion
(iii) Flexible rules and exclusion of judicial review of administrative action
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
25
Which of the following statement is/are correct about writ of mandamus can be issued?
(i) Error of jurisdiction as well as lack of jurisdiction
(ii) Jurisdiction is irrelavant for writ of mandamus to issue
(iii) Violation of the principles of natural justice
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
26
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the relationship between natural
justice and legal justice?
(i) Natural justice and legal justice both have presented a water-tight classification
(ii) Natural justice has been treated in aid of legal justice
(iii) It is also stated that natural justice relieves legal justice from unnecessary
technicality, grammatical formalism or logical fabrication
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
27
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the doctrine of promissory
estoppel?
(i) The doctrine of promissory estoppel applies equally to government and public
authorities
(ii) The doctrine of promissory estoppel can be used to compel the government or public
authority to carry out a representation or promise which was restricted by law or
which was beyond the power of the officer making it
(iii) Promissory estoppel cannot be applied to government or public authority where
there is larger public interest involved
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
28
Which of the following statement is/are correct about ‘Ombudsman’? “Ombudsman is
much needed in modern democratic setup”?
(i) Several facets of the working of administration are being remained unremedied at
judicial forum
(ii) Judicial control mechanism of administration action is less effective and not perfect
(iii) It is stated that Ombudsman keeps ‘Frontier’ with the law as well as in some
respects an overlap but ombudsman remain criteria for judging mal-administration
or in-justice are not co-extensive with law courts.
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
133/2025 8 A
29
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the application of the ‘ultravires’
rules becomes difficult in practice due to
(i) Powers are delegated in narrow language
(ii) Courts interpret the enabling provision rather broadly
(iii) In delegated legislation, courts adopt a deferential attitude rather than critical
attitudes as a result, courts lean towards upholding the same
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
30
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the doctrine of unjust enrichment?
(i) The doctrine of unjust enrichment is stated as “just and salutary” in nature
(ii) Remedies against unjust enrichment or benefit has been recognized under the third
category of the common law
(iii) The doctrine of unjust enrichment has been defined in the constitution
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
31
The term, ‘omission’ under BNS denotes :
Answer
B. A series of omissions as a single omission
32
An act is considered to be done ‘voluntarily’ under Section 2 of the BNS when:
Answer
C. Both
33
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if an offence is punishable only with a fine or
community service, and the fine imposed is Rs. 7,500, what is the maximum period of
simple imprisonment the Court can impose for non-payment of the fine?
Answer
B. Four months
34
Assertion
Answer
D. Both false
35
The making of a false document or electronic record, with the intent to cause damage or
injury, is the offence of
Answer
C. Forgery
36
A knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it. A, intending to cause, or knowing it
to be likely to cause Z’s death, induces B to fire at the bush. B fires and kills Z. Here; but
Answer
A. A has committed the offence of culpable homicide and B may be guilty of no
offence
37
A attempts to pick the pocket of Z by thrusting his hand into Z’s pocket. He fails in the
attempt because the pocket is empty. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 :
Answer
A. A is guilty of attempt to commit theft
38
X a station house officer, while investigating a theft case, issues a written order
requiring Y, a student and not an accused or witness, to appear at the police station
daily for “questioning.” The law expressly prohibits police officers from requiring
attendance of any person unnecessarily at the police station during investigation. Which
of the following is correct under Section 199 of the BNS, 2023?
Answer
B. X is liable for knowingly disobeying a direction of law that prohibits requiring
attendance of persons
39
Under Section 74 of BNS, the offence of sexual harassment can be committed by :
Answer
Question Cancelled
40
Which statement regarding the nature of an unlawful assembly is correct based on the
Explanation to Section 189 of BNS?
Answer
D. An assembly which was not unlawful when it assembled may subsequently
become an unlawful assembly
41
FIR is :
Answer
D. not a substantive piece of evidence and there is no requirement of minutest
details to be recorded therein
42
Criminal Procedure is a matter in the __________ list of the Seventh Schedule to the
Constitution of India.
Answer
C. Concurrent List
43
“X” provision of an Act provides for a minimum sentence of six months imprisonment.
After plea bargaining a Magistrate awarded imprisonment till rising of the court and
fine of Rs. 300. The aforesaid sentence is :
Answer
C. Not correct, as neither trial court nor the High Court has the power to bypass
the minimum sentence prescribed under the law on the basis of plea
bargaining
44
Additional Sessions Judge is appointed by :
Answer
B. High Court
45
In which of the following cases, the High Court cannot act under its inherent powers :
Answer
A. To grant a bail
46
Which of the following is not open to revision?
Answer
B. Order of adjournment
47
If the High Court has refused to grant special leave to appeal against an order of
acquittal on an application filed by private complainant :
Answer
B. A further appeal can’t be made by the State in such case
48
Under section 396 (2) criminal procedure code which of the authority is authorised to
decide quantum of compensation?
Answer
A. State Legal Service Authority or District legal Service Authority
49
Mark the Correct statement :
Answer
D. Both
50
When after hearing the evidence for prosecution and the accused in a trial on charge for
five offences each punishable with imprisonment that may extend to three years, the
Chief Judicial Magistrate is of the opinion that the accused is guilty, he may :
Answer
A. Pass a judgment of conviction and sentence him to terms of imprisonment on
each count directing it to run consecutively but such that the aggregate
punishment does not exceed twenty years of imprisonment
51
The distinction between ‘Strict Liability’ and ‘Absolute Liability’ is that Absolute
Liability excludes the defense of :
Answer
D. All of the above
52
Which of the following shall be deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue
in a former suit?
Answer
C. Matters which might and ought to have been raised as ground of defence or
attack
53
X agrees to supply Y with 1,000 bags of rice in installments over two months. After
delivering 200 bags, Y delays payment for the first two consignments in violation of the
contract terms. X, after notice, rescinds the contract. Y later claims that X has no right
to compensation because he rescinded the contract voluntarily :
Which of the following is legally correct under Section 75?
Answer
B. X can claim compensation because he rescinded rightfully due to Y’s default
54
Section 10A of the IT Act, 2000 primarily ensures that :
Answer
C. Contracts shall not be denied enforceability merely because they are formed
through electronic communication
55
A revision petition under Section 115 CPC lies only when :
Answer
A. There is a jurisdictional error or illegality affecting the decision
56
The pecuniary jurisdiction of a commercial Court under the Commercial Courts Act,
2015 is :
Answer
Question Cancelled
57
Gram Nyayalaya under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 is established :
Answer
D. The State Government can establish Gram Nyayalayas in consultation High
Court
58
Which of the following statements regarding permanent injunction under the Specific
Relief Act, 1963 is correct?
Answer
C. Permanent injunction can be granted to prevent breach of contract where
damages are inadequate
59
Which of the following is NOT subject to condonation of delay under Section 5 of the
Limitation Act, 1963?
Answer
A. Suit
60
When an appeal against an ex parte decree has been disposed of, a separate application
under Order IX r. 13?
Answer
A. Is barred
61
Identify the Incorrect Statement from the following based on the principles that are
followed by the Courts in India, as to credibility of witness :
Answer
D. The credibility of the prosecution witnesses should be subject to judicial
evaluation in totality of facts and also in scrutiny of isolated facts, to test the
veracity of the witness statements
62
As per Section 22 of The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 an additional cause for
making the confessional statement irrelevant is added to the provision; identify the
correct option:
(i) Inducement
(ii) Threat
(iii) Coercion
(iv) Promise
Answer
C. (iii) only
63
In a recent and popular judgment, the Supreme Court of India allowed an application by
the party, seeking permission to submit supplementary affidavit by way of
examination-in-chief along with Memory Cards/Chips of the Mobile Phones, Compact
Disc
Answer
B. Vibhor Garg V. Neha 2025 SCC Online SC 1421
64
Match the following with the illustrations given under various provisions and
appropriate concept as given under the relevancy of facts as per, The Bharatiya Sakshya
Adhiniyam, 2023 :
(i) A is accused of the murder of B by beating
Answer
C. Contemporaneous facts
legitimate son of B. The fact that A was
always treated as such by members of the
family, is relevant as
(iv) A is accused of fraudulently delivering to
65
Who has the burden to prove the facts of a case illustrated below, as per the provisions
of, The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
(i) Akash desires a Court to give judgment that he is entitled to certain land in the
possession of Balaji, by reason of facts, which he asserts, and which Balaji denies,
to be true, so _________ has to prove.
(ii) Appu sues Bhima for land of which Bhima is in possession, and which, as Appu
asserts, was left to Appu by the will of Charan, Bhima’s father. If either side fails
to adduce evidence, the person in possession would be entitled to retain his
possession, so ________ has to prove.
(iii) Ahmed, is accused of murder by the public prosecutor i.e. Biju Nair. Ahmed alleges
that, by reason of unsoundness of mind, he did not know the nature of the act, so
the burden is on __________
(iv) Alphine is charged with travelling in a train without a ticket and the ticket
collector i.e. Bansi Lal wants to fine Alphine, so ___________ has to prove.
Answer
A. Akash; Appu; Ahmed; Alphine
66
The foundation of Section 40 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is based upon
celebrated case of :
Answer
A. Tulk v. Moxhay
67
Easement apart from the ___________heritage can’t be transferred under section 6 of
Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
Answer
B. Dominant
68
In which section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, gift may be suspended or
revoked?
Answer
C. Sec. 126
69
In which type of mortgage, the possession of property is delivered to the mortgagee
under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
Answer
A. Usufructuary Mortgage
70
Which section of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 defined Transfer of Property?
Answer
C. Section 5 of Transfer of Property Act, 1882
71
Which among the following is FALSE with regard to the Right to Fair Compensation and
Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?
Answer
B. Social Impact Assessment is mandatory for all acquisitions under the Act
72
The National Green Tribunal has no jurisdiction over questions arising out of the
implementation of the ___________ Act.
Answer
C. onservation) Act, 1980
73
In Kerala, sand removal operation shall not be carried out in a Kadavu :
Answer
A. Before 7:00 a.m. and after 4:00 p.m.
74
The term “poramboke” is defined under :
Answer
D. The Kerala Land Conservancy Act, 1957
75
For the purpose of the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, an area
comprising not less than ___________ around courts may be declared as silence zone.
Answer
B. 100 metres
76
Which of the following correctly states the legal requirements for registration of a trade
union under the Trade Unions Act, 1926, after the 2001 amendment?
Answer
C. A minimum of 10% or 100 workers of the establishment, whichever is less,
must be members, with at least 7 signatories to the application.
77
Which of the following is not a subject of collective bargaining?
Answer
C. National economic policy
78
Which ILO Convention first formally recognized the right to collective bargaining?
Answer
B. Convention No. 98
79
Which of the following statements are TRUE under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
(i) A strike in a public utility service requires a 14-day prior notice.
(ii) No strike can be held during the pendency of conciliation proceedings and 7 days
thereafter.
(iii) In non-public utility services, strikes are illegal during the pendency of
adjudication and 2 months after.
(iv) A strike is always illegal if less than 50% of the workers participate.
(v) A strike held after the failure of conciliation proceedings, with proper notice, can
still be legal.
Choose the correct option:
Answer
B. Only (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) are true
80
“Retrenchment” does not include :
Answer
D. Termination due to disciplinary action
81
Which of the following payments is not considered part of the minimum wages
calculation and is instead payable separately in case of termination?
Answer
D. Retrenchment compensation
82
Which of the following statements about the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, is CORRECT?
(i) The Act applies to every factory and establishment employing 20 or more persons.
(ii) The minimum bonus payable is 8.33% of the salary or wages earned in a year.
(iii) An employee must have worked at least 240 days in a financial year to be eligible
for a bonus.
(iv) Fixed-term and contract workers are excluded from the Act’s coverage.
(v) The maximum bonus payable is 20% of the salary or wages earned.
Choose the correct option :
Answer
Question Cancelled
83
Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, the gratuity amount payable to an employee
who has completed 8 years of continuous service is calculated as :
Answer
A. 15 days’ wages for every completed year of service, wages being the last
drawn basic salary plus dearness allowance
84
Under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, the
term “Provident Fund” primarily refers to :
Answer
B. A compulsory contributory fund to which both employer and employee
contribute for long-term retirement benefits
85
According to the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition
and Redressal) Act, 2013, which of the following statements best captures the scope of
“sexual harassment” at the workplace?
Answer
B. Sexual harassment includes unwelcome physical, verbal and non-verbal
conduct of a sexual nature that can be explicit or implicit, creating a hostile
or intimidating work environment.
86
The special courts under POCSO Act should complete the trial within ___________ from
the date of taking cognizance of the offence.
Answer
A. 12 months
87
A Magistrate can pass a protection order under :
Answer
B. S. 18 of The Protection of Women From Domestic Violence Act, 2005
88
The maximum punishment for exposure and abandonment of senior citizen is :
Answer
Question Cancelled
89
The term of office of the chairperson under The Kerala State Commission For The
Scheduled Castes And The Scheduled Tribes Act, 2007 is :
Answer
C. Three years
90
M.R. Krishna Murthi v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd. is a land mark case related to :
Answer
B. ADR mechanisms
91
The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 was came into force on :
Answer
A. 28th day of September, 1993
92
In the Constitution of the National Commission for Women, one member each should be
from the category of :
Answer
C. The Scheduled castes and the scheduled Tribe
93
Under The Rights Of Persons With Disabilities Act, 2016, to promote inclusive education
in the form of supply of books and other learning materials to the students with the
bench mark disabilities is free of cost up to the age of ___________ yrs.
Answer
D. 18
94
Which of the following is correct regarding the constitution of National Council for
Transgender Persons?
Answer
B. Five representatives of transgender community
95
The maximum punishment for refusing to admit person to hospitals, dispensary,
educational institution etc. under the Protection of Civil Rights Act is :
Answer
A. 6 months
96
The doctrine of Jus Cogens reflects :
Answer
C. The peremptory norm character of International Law
97
The rudimentary requirement for an International Law to be recognised as International
Customary Law is/are :
Answer
C. Both
98
The concept of “Individual Responsibility” in case of International Crime was identified
in :
Answer
A. Nuremburg Trial Tribunal (1946) 41 AJIL 172
99
Principle of Speciality in an extradition case means :
Answer
C. The requesting State is under a duty not to punish the offender for any other
crime than that for which he was extradited
100
The reservation clause in a Treaty is having the binding effect on the :
Answer
B. State making the reservation and the States who have given acceptance to it
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