| Post Name | Legal Assistant - Kerala Water Authority |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 012/2024 |
| Category Code | 056/2023 |
| Date of Test | 19 January 2024 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statements reflect most accurately what an ‘obiter dictum’ is?
Answer
C. A passing comment on a related legal issue
2
Which among the following schools of jurisprudence is related to the idea that law is a
product of societal needs and demands?
Answer
D. Legal realism
3
The ‘Golden Rule’ of Statutory interpretation allows the courts to :
Answer
B. Modify the plain meaning of statutory words in order to prevent absurd results
4
If a court is bound by the ‘doctrine of stare decisis’, the court is most likely to :
Answer
B. Be bound to follow its own previous decisions
5
Which among the following legal systems relies on the principle of precedents and the
decisions of higher courts?
Answer
D. Common Law
A 3
6
Which among the following statements accurately describes legal rights and legal duties?
Answer
C. Legal rights and duties are interdependent
7
What among the following does ‘ownership of property’ most accurately represent?
Answer
D. Use and possession of property
8
The use of a non-obstante clause in any statute signifies :
Answer
B. An explicit override of conflicting provisions in other laws
9
When statutes are said to be in ‘pari materia’, the court may interpret them?
Answer
A. Harmoniously and together
10
When interpreting penal statutes, the ‘ejusdem generis’ is relevant for
Answer
D. Narrowing the meaning of general words
012/2024 4 A
11
The right to privacy recognised in the Indian constitution comes under which of the following
fundamental rights?
Answer
B. Right to life and personal liberties
12
Which among the following options is not part of the Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer
A. Promotion of scientific temper, humanity and the spirit of inquiry and reform
13
The concept of judicial review in India allows for the judiciary to :
Answer
C. To pronounce upon the constitutionality of the legislative and executive acts
14
In the famous Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court, in its
judgement :
Answer
D. Decriminalised consensual homosexual sex
15
As per the RTI Act 2005, how is disclosing information related to third parties’ dealt with :
Answer
B. It requires public authorities to seek the consent of third parties before disclosing
information in most cases
16
Which of the following statements accurately describes the jurisdiction of Lokpal and
Lokayukta in India?
Answer
A. Lokpal has jurisdiction over the central government, while Lokayukta has
jurisdiction over state governments
17
The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, primarily deals with the adjudication of disputes
and complaints related to the service matters of :
Answer
B. Government employees
18
What is the primary objective of the Kerala State Right to Service Act, 2012?
Answer
C. To expedite the delivery of services to citizens
19
In what way does Public Interest Litigation (PIL) contribute towards judicial activism?
Answer
B. By encouraging proactive judicial involvement in public matters
20
What differentiates promissory estoppel from traditional contract law?
Answer
D. Promissory estoppel does not require consideration
012/2024 6 A
21
A, an officer of a court of Justice, being ordered by that court to arrest Y, after due enquiry,
believing Z to be Y arrests Z. What offence A has committed?
Answer
C. A has committed no offence
22
A, a jailor, has the charge of Z, a prisoner. A, intending to cause Z’s death illegally omits to
supply Z with food. Inconsequence of that, Z is much reduced in strength. But the starvation
is not sufficient to cause his death. A was dismissed from his office and B succeeds him.
B without collusion or cooperation with A, illegally omits to supply Z with food, knowing that
he is likely thereby to cause Z’s death. Z dies of hunger. What is the liability of A and B?
Answer
B. A is guilty of attempt to murder and B is guilty of murder
23
‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’. ‘B’ refuses to do so. Whether ‘A’ is guilty of any offence?
Answer
C. Yes. A is guilty of abetting B to commit murder
24
What is the minimum number of persons required to constitute the offence of Rioting?
Answer
D. Five
25
‘A’ puts jewels into a box belonging to ‘Z’ with the intention that they may be found in that
box and that this circumstance may cause ‘Z’ to be convicted for theft. Which offence ‘A’ has
committed?
Answer
A. Fabricating False Evidence
26
A knows that Z is behind a bush. But B does not know it. A, intending to cause or knowing it
to be likely to cause Z’s death, induces B to fire at the bush. B fires and kills Z. What offence
A and B have committed?
Answer
A. A has committed culpable homicide and B may be guilty of no offence
27
Offence for which police officer has no authority to arrest a person without warrant is called :
Answer
B. Non Cognizable Offence
28
Which of the following courts can impose death sentence?
Answer
D. Sessions Court
29
Which of the following agreements is nullity from its inception?
Answer
B. Void Agreement
30
A supplies B, a lunatic, with necessaries suitable to his conditions of life. Whether A can
claim reimbursement from B’s property?
(i) No. Agreement with lunatic is void
(ii) No. Agreement with lunatic is voidable and hence can be enforced only at the option
of B
(iii) Yes, Since A has supplied necessaries
Answer
D. Only (iii) is correct
012/2024 8 A
31
Which of the following maxims has the meaning ones assent or consent negatives the
liability?
Answer
A. Volenti Non Fit injuria
32
Ryland v. Fletcher deals with :
Answer
C. Strict Liability
33
Whether Commercial court can adjudicate a Commercial dispute, if one of the contracting
parties is State?
(i) No. Only if parties involved are individuals, commercial courts can adjudicate
(ii) Yes
(iii) No. Commercial courts can adjudicate only if one of the parties is a firm
Answer
B. Only (ii) is correct
34
Which of the following Statements is false?
Answer
D. Qualification of Nyayadhikari is same as that of District Judge
35
Which of the following principles deals with preventing courts of concurrent jurisdiction from
simultaneously entertaining and adjudicating two parallel litigations in respect of the same
cause of action, same subject matter and same relief?
Answer
C. Res subjudice
36
Which of the following circumstances in which a private person may arrest any person?
Answer
D. When a non bailable and cognizable offence is committed in his presence
37
A rescues B, a person in lawful custody and in doing so causes grievous hurt to C, a constable
in whose custody B was. He was charged under Sections 225 and 333 of the Indian Penal
Code. Whether he may tried at one trial for every such offence?
Answer
C. Yes. As these offences are connected together to form the part of same transaction
38
X has a jewellery Box with him and he wants to return it to the real owner. Both A and
B claims. What is the course of action available to X?
Answer
A. X can file an interpleader suit
39
Which of the following is not a remedy available under Specific Relief Act, 1963?
Answer
B. Enforcement of a penal provision
40
Which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure in relation to which
“Doctrine of sufficient Cause” under the Limitation Act 1963 is not applicable?
Answer
A. Order XXI of the Code of Civil Procedure
41
The determination of a lease can be done by :
Answer
D. Both
42
Consider the following statements regarding doctrine of election :
(i) When a person chooses to dissent from the transfer, he shall relinquish the benefit so
transferred to him and such benefit shall revert to the transferor
(ii) If within three years, the owner or his representatives fail to express their dissent or
reject the benefits conferred upon them, then such transfer is deemed to be confirmed
in favor of the transfer
(iii) In all cases where the transfer is for consideration, it shall be the duty of the transferor
or his representatives to compensate the disappointed transferee
(iv) If the owner fails elect after two years, then the transferor may require him to make
such election
Answer
C. (i) and (iii) are true
43
A gift is in the form of a single transfer to the donee of several things. One of which is, and
the others are not burdened by an obligation. The donee can take nothing by the gift unless
he :
Answer
A. Accepts it fully
44
To get the benefit of the section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the following
conditions are necessary :
(i) Contract of transfer was made by a person who was competent to contract
(ii) Contract is subsisting at the time when a Claim for recovery of the property is made
Answer
A. Both (i) and (ii) are essential
45
All the following statements are false regarding suit for redemption of mortgage property
except :
Answer
Question Cancelled
46
Under Indian Evidence Act, a person is presumed dead, if he is not traceable for ––––––––––
years.
Answer
B. Seven years
47
All the following statements are true regarding competency of witness before Court of Law
except :
Answer
C. A lunatic is not competent to testify before a Court of Law
48
A is accused of a crime. The facts that, after the commission of the alleged crime, he
absconded is relevant under –––––––––––– of Indian Evidence Act 1872.
Answer
C. Section 8
49
Consider the following statements regarding relevancy of evidence given by a witness in a
judicial proceeding in a subsequent judicial proceeding :
(i) The evidence is relevant only when the witness is dead
(ii) The evidence is relevant only when the presence of the witness cannot be obtained
without an amount of delay or expense which, under the circumstances of the case, the
Court considers unreasonable
(iii) The proceeding was between the same parties or their representatives in interest
(iv) It is essential that the adverse party in the first proceeding had the right and
opportunity to cross-examine
Answer
D. Only (iii) and (iv) are true
50
The question before a Court of law is whether A was poisoned by a certain poison. The fact
that certain persons, who were poisoned by that poison, exhibited certain symptoms which
experts have affirmed to be the symptoms of that poison, is :
Answer
B. Relevant
51
Which provision of POSH Act, 2013 mandates that the employer shall include in its report
the number of cases filed and their disposal under the Act in the annual report of his
organisation or where no such report is required to be prepared, intimate such number of
cases, if any, to the District Officer?
Answer
A. Section 22
52
Unfair labour practices are those practices mentioned under –––––––––– of the Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947.
Answer
B. Fifth Schedule
53
An award including an arbitration award shall become enforceable on the expiry of ––––––––
from the date of its publication under section 17 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
Answer
C. Thirty days
54
Consider the following statements regarding right to compensation for workmen who are laid
off :
(i) A workman is entitled to compensation only if has completed not less than one year of
continuous service under the employer
(ii) The compensation shall be equal to fifty per cent of the total of the basic wages and
dearness allowance that would have been payable to him had he not been so laid-off
(iii) A workman is entitled to compensation only if has completed not less than six months
of continuous service under the employer
(iv) The compensation shall be equal to thirty per cent. of the total of the basic wages and
dearness allowance that would have been payable to him had he not been so laid-off
Answer
B. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
55
A person can be qualified to be appointed as the presiding officer of a Labour Court, if he has
been a presiding officer of a Labour Court constituted under any provincial or State Act for a
period not less than –––––––––– years.
Answer
D. Five years
56
Under Air Act, 1981, which among the following entity is empowered to declare air pollution
control areas :
Answer
C. State Government
57
The curing, preparation or preservation or mounting of trophies under Wild Life Protection
Act 1972 is known as :
Answer
B. Taxidermy
58
Consider the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal :
(i) The NGT has original jurisdiction on all matters under Indian Forest Act 1927
(ii) The Chairperson of NGT is shall be a retired judge of Supreme Court of India
(iii) The NGT has original Jurisdiction on matters under Wild Life Protection Act, 1972
(iv) There shall be minimum ten and maximum 20 judicial members in NGT
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iv) are correct
59
The National Biodiversity Authority is empowered to determine the benefit sharing in which
following manner?
Answer
D. Both
60
Under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, an area comprising not less
than 100 meters around hospitals, educational institutions and courts may be declared as :
Answer
A. Silent Zone
61
In the following ADR techniques, which one is a binding process :
Answer
D. Arbitration
62
Which of the following statements, is/are correct regarding Lok Adalat in India?
(i) Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act,
1987
(ii) If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat, there is a provision for
an appeal against such an award
(iii) Mobile Lok Adalats are also organized in various parts of the country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer
C. (i) and (iii) only
63
Who shall review the pendency of cases of Juvenile justice board, on quarterly basis?
Answer
A. Chief Judicial Magistrate
64
According to the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, what is the punishment for demanding dowry :
Answer
D. Upto imprisonment for 2 years and fine upto rupees 10000
65
Any Order made by the Competent Court under the Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act, 2005 is enforceable :
Answer
C. Throughout India
66
Which statement is correct according to the Constitutive Theory of Recognition of State?
Answer
A. Recognition is determinative of statehood
67
X, a national of Great Britain, commits bigamy in Great Britain, and flies away to Saudi
Arabia. Britain requests Saudi Arabia to extradite X :
Answer
A. X cannot be extradited by Saudi Arabia to Great Britain, as bigamy is not an
offence in Saudi Arabia
68
The principle of ex-aquea-et-bono is incorporated under Article :
Answer
D. 38(2) of the Statute of International Court of Justice
012/2024 16 A
69
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is :
Answer
B. A UN General Assembly resolution
70
What is the full form of UNHCR?
Answer
C. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
71
Identify the type of sentence :
We must breathe, or we cannot live.
Answer
C. compound
72
The committee –––––––––– added a suggestion.
Answer
C. has
73
The hikers embarked –––––––––– their journey early in the morning.
Answer
B. on
74
I –––––––––– known her for a long time.
Answer
Question Cancelled
75
He spilled –––––––––– milk all over.
Answer
C. the
76
Add a question tag :
I am right; ––––––––––.
Answer
D. aren’t I?
77
Fill in the blanks with the Correct adverb :
He tied the knot ––––––––––.
Answer
B. neatly
78
Fill in with the correct tense form :
I would have attended the seminar if I –––––––––– you.
Answer
D. were
79
Apply a modal auxiliary that suggests politeness :
–––––––––– you pass me the salt?
Answer
D. could
80
Change to indirect speech :
He said, “Sit down, boy”
Answer
Question Cancelled
81
Use the correct collective noun A –––––––––– of geese drifted into the courtyard.
Answer
A. gaggle
82
Choose the proper meaning of the phrasal verb italicized :
The servant threw the gauntlet at his silent master.
Answer
B. issued a challenge
83
Pick out that part of the sentence with error :
Their distress had no affect on him as he was determined to enjoy his pleasures.
Answer
B. had no affect on him
84
Pick out the correct sentence :
Answer
D. Now-
85
–––––––––– is a synonym of garrulous.
Answer
D. talkative
86
Choose the antonym of Corpulent.
Answer
C. slim
87
Choose the word that suggests ‘one who remains absent from duty without permission’ :
Answer
C. truant
88
Substitute the italicized phrase with a proper foreign expression. The parliament was
adjourned for an indefinite period :
Answer
A. sine die
89
Give a one word for ‘a place for housing aeroplanes’.
Answer
D. hangar
90
Use a correct idiom :
When we needed help, our closed relative disappointed us by proving to be a ––––––––––.
Answer
A. broken reed
91
The following table shows some personalities and their views related with the Revolt of 1857.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
Personality View point
I Thomas Metcalf 1. Rural revolt elitist in character
II Eric Stokes 2. The first war of Indian Independence
III R C Majumdar 3. More than sepoy mutiny, less than national revolt
IV V D Savarker 4. Neither the first nor national or a war of independence
Answer
C. I – 3, II – 1, III – 4, IV – 2
92
Which of the following statement is / are wrong in relation to Ayyankali?
(i) In 1915 Ayyankali chaired a meeting where several pulaya women threw away their
Kallumala and irumpuvala
(ii) Ayyankali distributed among the lower-caste women nose studs and asked them to
wear it and led Mukkutti agitation
(iii) In admiration of Aiyya Swamy, Ayyankali had established a Brahma Nishta Matam at
Venganur
(iv) Ayyankali became a member of the Sree Mulam Praja Sabha of Thiruvitamkur from
1914 onwards
Answer
C. (ii) only
93
Find out the correct sequence of the following events related with the Vaikom Satyagraha :
(i) Savarna Jadha was organised from Vaikom to Thiruvananthapuram under the
leadership of Mannath Padmanabhan
(ii) Gandhi reached Kerala and had discussions with people associated with the issue at
Vaikom.
(iii) A party of 12 Akalis headed by Lala Lal Singh and Kripal Singh came to Vaikom and
set up a langar for the volunteers
(iv) A memorial signed by more than 25,000 caste Hindus submitted to maharani Regent
Answer
B. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
94
The following are the works of Social Reformers of Kerala which among them is/are NOT
associated with Pandit Karuppan :
(i) Prachina Malayalam
(ii) Aacharabhushanam
(iii) Lankamardanam
(iv) Rajayogaparasyam
Answer
A. (i) and (iv)
95
Examine the following statements about Bipin Chandra Pal :
(i) Bipin Chandra Pal’s association with Congress began in 1886 Calcutta Session
(ii) Bipin Chandra Pal joined Tilak’s Home rule League in 1916
(iii) Bipan Chandra Pal wrote the book Unhappy India against the views of Katherine Mayo
(iv) Bipin Chandra Pal believed that “the soul of America and Europe is Christ; the Soul of
India is Sri Krishna
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Answer
B. (iii) only
96
The following are events related with Civil Disobedience Movement. Arrange them in the
chronological order :
(i) Gandhi’s Dandi March to Gujarat seashore
(ii) Gandhi’s eleven point ultimatum to Irwin
(iii) Gandhi Ambedkar Pact
(iv) Gandhi Irwin Pact
Answer
C. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
97
Which among the following statements are TRUE about Dakshayani Velayudhan?
(i) Member of Cochin Legislative Council
(ii) Member of Indian Constituent Assembly
(iii) Member of Indian Parliament
(iv) Member of Kerala Legislative assembly
Answer
B. (i) and (ii)
98
Which among the following is associated with Namo Bharat?
(i) Semi High speed regional rail service
(ii) Regional Rapid Transit system
(iii) Make in India Initiative
(iv) Train service between Sahibabad and Duhai
Answer
C. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
99
Perumal Murugan won JCB Literary Prize for which of the following works :
(i) Eru Veyyil (Rising Heat)
(ii) Madhurobhagan
Answer
B. (iii)
100
Which Bollywood film actress recently won Imtiaz-e-Jamia, the highest honerary award of
Jamia Millia Islamiya University?
Answer
C. Sharmila Tagore
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