| Post Name | Legal Officer |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala Financial Corporation (Alp, Idk, Ekm Dists) |
| Question Paper Code | 189/2014 |
| Date of Test | 11 November 2014 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
‘The region of atmosphere where Ozone Layer is found :
Answer
B. Stratosphere
2
PERC is a hazardous chemical substance widely used in :
Answer
A. Drv Cleaning
3
Which organ is commonly affected by Meningitis? |
Answer
D. Brain
4
What is GSM in mobile phone service?
Answer
C. Global System for Mobile Communication
5
‘Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India’ is written by :
|
Answer
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
6
Travancore Public Service Commission was constituted by :
Answer
D. Sri Chithira Tirunal
7
Large-scale amendments were effected in Constitution of India in :
Answer
C. 1976
8
Triratnas (Three Jewels) the philosophical trio ie associated with :
Answer
A. Jainism
9
The historical city of Constantinople is presently known as:
Answer
B. Istambul
10
Entharo Mahanubhavalu is a musical composition by :
Answer
C. Thyagaraja Swami
11
Tamasha is a dance form of :
Answer
D. Maharashtra
12
Silent Valley declared national park in :
Answer
A. 1984
13
Indian state with longest coastal line :
Answer
D. Gujarat
14
Which one is the largest Asian desert?
Answer
B. Gobi
15
Who was the secretary of Kerala Pradesh Congress Committee when it was formed in 1921?
Answer
A. K. Madhavan Nair
16
Country that was suspended from G-8 in March 2014:
Answer
B. Russia
17
The Accidental Prime Minister-The Making and Unmaking of Manmohan Singh is book
written by :
Answer
C. Sanjaya Baru
18
Boko Haram is an outfit of extremists in :
Answer
D. Nigeria
19
Indian State which launched the scheme Blood on Call :
Answer
A. Maharashtra
20
Athlete who has been upgraded recently to first place in her event at the 2005 Monaco World
Athletics Championship :
Answer
C. Yelena Isinbayeva
21
Procedure to amend the constitution of India is detailed in the Article :
Answer
A. 368
22
Choose the right answer :
Answer
B. No - confidence motion can be passed only in the Lok Sabha *
23
In the constitution of India emergency caused by the failure of constitutional machinery in a
state is provided in the article :
Answer
B. 356
24
In the constitution of India the section Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from
the constitution of :
Answer
D. Ireland
25
Pick the right answer :
Answer
C. There is no provision for direct enforcement of Fundamental Duties in the
constitution
26
Pick the right answer regarding the powers of the President of India.
Answer
C. President appoints the Prime Minister
27
Choose the right answer :
Answer
B. Only Fundamental Rights are justiciable and Directive Principles are non-
justiciable
28
Right to Education was added to the Fundamental rights of the Constitution of India by
inserting which article in the constitution :
|
Answer
D. Art. 21A
29
Article $12 of the Indian constitution deals with :
Answer
A. All India Services
30
Pick the right answer regarding the Preamble of the constitution of India:
Answer
C. Preamble aids in the legal interpretation of the constitution when there arises confusion or ambiguity in the constitutional provisions
31
Virtuous men always abstain ______ bad habits.
Answer
B. from
32
Unacknowledged use of a resource is called:
Answer
A. plagiarism
33
‘ASAP’ is an example for:
Answer
D. acronym
34
‘Hood’ in the word ‘childhood’ is a:
Answer
C. suffix
35
Wise people are ready to ______ their style of living to their circumstances.
Answer
A. adapt
36
A person who never uses alcohol is a:
Answer
C. teetotaller
37
A person who never uses alcohol is
Answer
B. hedonist
38
Phrasal verb ‘give in’ means :
Answer
D. handover
39
There are many dead languages in the world. Parts of speech of the underlined word is :
}
Answer
C. adverb
40
America has proved to be a snake in the grass for gulf countries.
The underlined phrase in the sentence means :
|
Answer
B. great helper |
|
41
Select the correct sentence from the following :
Answer
C. This is one of the best offer that has been made by the company
42
Who among the following has defined law as “sum total of the conditions under which the
personal wishes of one man can be combined with the personal wishes of another man in
accordance with the general law of freedom"?
Answer
B. Vinogradoff
43
Certain facts or events by virtue of which the right has become vested in its owner is denoted as :
|
Answer
A. Object of the right !
44
Possession of a patent right is :
Answer
D. Duplicate possession
45
The theory which asserts that the personality in a corporation is not a fictitious assumption
or a concession of law but a reality :
Answer
D. Realist theory
46
A registered company alters its articles of association, thereby changes its constitution and
management, this kind of legislation is called :
Answer
C. Judicial legislation
47
The theory that the agreement entered into by the states must be followed by them in good |
faith is known as :
Answer
A. Auto limitation theory
48
Which of the following theories state that “a state is and becomes an international person
through recognition only and exclusively”?
Answer
B. Evidentiary theory
49
Which of the following statements is false?
Answer
D. When a sovereign state accepts the suzerainty of another state, it is partial
succession
A 7 189/2014
[P.T.0.]
50
The rule of interpretation stated in Heydon's case :
Answer
B. Mischief rule
51
#1. The maxim which means “a word is known by the company it keeps” :
Answer
A. Noscitur a Sociis
52
a2. Which among the following is the purpose of a proviso: |
Answer
D. All the above
53
a3. The principle which determines whether a legislation is utilitarian or not is :
Answer
C. Hedonistic calculus
54
The question whether a statute is mandatory or directory do not depend on:
Answer
B. Language in which the intent is clothed
55
Which of the following is not a character of the traditional theory of separation of powers?
Answer
C. There should be provision for judicial review of legislation
56
Which of the following human rights instruments is akin to that of Part IV of Indian |
Constitution? |
Answer
A. International convention on social economic and cultural Rights |
57
Which of the following is a category of administrative action?
Answer
D. All the above
58
Which of the following is not a mechanism for judicial review of administrative action?
Answer
D. Seetion 482 of Code of Criminal procedure
59
The institutional of ombudsman first originated in:
Answer
B. Sweden
60
Which of the following persons comes under the doctrine of legal disability in the limitation |
Act?
Answer
D. Unsound woman of any age
61
A report made by a Police Officer in a case which discloses, after investigation, the
commission of a non cognizable offence is :
Answer
B. Complaint
62
A woman aged 70 years being suspected of committing an offence punishable with life
imprisonment sought for bail. She was earlier convicted for committing theft. Court granted
bail. Do you think that the decision of the court is proper?
|
Answer
C. Yes, as per sec 437, she being an old woman
63
Which of the following provisions give right to the arrested person to meet an advocate of his
choice during interrogation?
Answer
B. Section 41 D
64
Which of the following cases, there is conclusive proof of legitimacy? |
Answer
C. Birth of a child within 280 days of the dissolution of marriage and his mother is
unmarried |
65
Which of the following comes under the facts of which court shall take judicial notice?
Answer
D. All the above
66
Which of the following statements is true with respect to dying declaration?
I. The person must make the statement under the expectation of death
Il. The person must make the statement as to the cause of his death
Ill. The statement is relevant in any proceeding in which the cause of his death comes
into question.
Answer
B. Only IL & Ill is right
67
Facts which, though not in issue. are so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of same
transaction is relevant is :
Answer
C. Reagetae
68
Answer
A. Ais lable under Section 511 of IPC.
69
Ulterior intent is :
Answer
A. Motive
70
Ais the servant of X. X asked A to remove and destroy the corpse of P, whom X had killed.
He threatened that if A did not do so, A and A's wife will be killed immediately. A removed
and destroyed the corpse. At the trial atage A pleaded duress as a defence. Whether A will
succeed?
Answer
A. A will succeed under Sec 94 of IPC
71
Match the following ;
I. Common intention a. Section 300 IPC
ll. Defamation b. Section 403 IPC
TT. Murder Cc. Section 499 IPC
IV. Criminal Misappropriation d. Section 34 IPC
Answer
B. I-d, Il-c, Il-a, IV-b
72
“Where there is a right, there is a remedy"?
Answer
C. Ubi jus ibi remedium
73
Which of the following is net an exception to strict. liability?
Answer
B. Mistake of Law
74
‘A’, had instructed his driver ‘P’ not give lift to any unauthorised persons. This was clearly
stipulated in the contract of employment between A & P. While on duty. P gave lift to B, an
unauthorised person. An accident occurred in which B suffered serious injury. Whether A is
liable under law of torts?
Answer
C. Ais not liable as the lift was given in disregard to his express orders
75
Denoghue v. Stevenson d. =‘ Vicarious liability
e. Volenti non fit injuria
f; Arises only in tort
g. Privity of contract
Answer
B. 1-e, 2-d, 3-b, 4-¢
76
For a valid adoption under Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, the child adopted must not
have completed :
Answer
C. 15 years of age
77
A Hindu dies intestate, leaving 4 sons and 3 daughters. What will be the share of each son
and daughter?
Answer
B. Each son and each daughter will get 1/7 of the property
78
Which of the following has the meaning “as near as possible"?
Answer
A. Cy-Pres
79
Which of the following is not a decree?
Answer
D. An order for dismissal for default
80
Whether pendency of a suit in a foreign court would preclude the courts in India from trying
the suit founded on the same cause of action between the same parties?
Answer
B. No, under Section 10 of Civil procedure Code
81
Which of the following is the proper mode of attachment of Movable property other than
agricultural produce in possession of judgement debtor?
Answer
B. By actual seizure thereof
82
Which of the following cases in which an application for review can be filed?
Answer
D. All the above
83
Which of the following properties can be transferred under the Transfer of Property Act?
Answer
C. Aclaim for a debt, which is an ascertainable sum of money
84
Which of the following cases, the rule against perpetuity do not apply?
Answer
D. All the above
85
Which of the following is not true with respect to vested interest?
Answer
C. Itis not always heritable
86
The Action for foreclosure is the remedy available to the :
Answer
A. Mortgage
87
“He who receives the advantage ought also to suffer the burden” :
Answer
C. Onerous gift
88
Which of the following is not considered as material evidence in determining the age of the
juvenile?
Answer
C. Birth certificate from the school including the play school in which the child first
attended
89
Which of the following provisions of Probation of Offenders Act, stipulates that a person who
is given the benefit of probation shall not suffer any disqualification?
|
Answer
A. Section 12
90
Which of the following provisions of Information Technology Act, deals with Cyber
| Terrorism?
|
Answer
D. Section 66 F
91
An offer cannot be accepted unless and until, it has been brought to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made” was held in:
Answer
B. Lalman shukla v. Gauri Datt
92
‘A’ owes some money to ‘B’ under a contract. It was agreed between A, B & C that B shall thenceforth accept ‘C’ as his debtor, instead of ‘A’. The old debt of A to B has been ended and a new debt from C to B has been contracted. This is:
Answer
C. Novation
93
Finder of lost goods is a:
Answer
A. Bailee
94
Which of the following statements are true with respect to limited liability Partnership? I. It is a hybrid of Partnership and company form of organisation. II. Procedure of incorporation of Limited Liability Partnership is similar to that of a partnership firm. III. Liability of a partner is limited to his agreed contribution.
Answer
C. Only I & III are true
95
Which of the following statements are true with respect to limited liability Partnership?
I. Itis a hybrid of Partnership and company form of organisation
Il. Procedure of incorporation of Limited Liability Partnership is similar to that of a
partnership firm
’ TIL Liability of a partner is limited to his agreed contribution
Answer
B. Only IT and III are true !
96
Which of the following are implied conditions under Sale of Goods Act?
Answer
C. Condition as to free from encumbrance
97
Foreign company means :
Answer
D. None of the above
98
Issue and transfer of securities by the listed companies or those companies which intend to
get their securities listed on any recognised Stock Exchange in India shall be administered by :
Answer
A. Central Government
99
Which of the following statements is not true regarding prospectus?
(A) Prospectus shall be issued before the date of its publication
(B) The registrar shall register the prospectus only after the registration
requirements are complied with
(C) If prospectus is issued in contravention of companies Act, every person who is
knowingly a party to the issue of the same is liable for imprisonment
(D) Prospectus must be issued on behalf of any person who is interested in the
formation of the company
Which of the following conditions is a must for a person to enjoy the benefit of ‘Holder in due
course’?
Answer
C. Obtained the instrument after paying valid consideration
100
The time limit for an authority to give information on an application under Right to
Information Act :
Answer
A. Within 30 days
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