| Post Name | Male Nursing Assistant |
|---|---|
| Department | Travancore Titanium Products Limited |
| Question Paper Code | 078/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 039/2024 |
| Date of Test | 16 July 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The ability of an individual to interact successfully with others belongs to the ___________ dimension of health
Answer
B. Social
2
The professional element that allows a healthcare worker to express her feelings and ideas without judging or hurting others
Answer
A. Assertiveness
3
Which function of a hospital is primarily served when the hospital is providing curative services to acutely ill patients?
Answer
C. Therapeutic
4
A group of healthcare workers, including an MPHW, ANM, JPHN and ASHA is employed in a community area. Who is not registered with the state nursing council?
Answer
D. ASHA
5
Avoiding emotional conflict by refusing to acknowledge anything that causes severe emotional pain consciously
Answer
A. Denial
6
While transferring a patient, a healthcare worker twists her body to reach for a trolley which is kept behind her without moving her legs. Which concept of body mechanics is compromised?
Answer
C. Alignment
7
A nurse is giving health education to a patient to go for a routine dental check-up. He does not know about the importance of dental hygiene and also seems not motivated for the check-up. Which priority aspect needs to be addressed to ensure the patient's dental visit?
Answer
C. Knowledge and motivation
8
A nurse is giving care to a mother after a normal delivery. Which function does NOT need to be addressed normally?
Answer
D. Coping with disability
9
The nursing action best falling under the category of primary prevention
Answer
D. Health education
10
The sleep disorder health-care workers are prone to develop due to long working schedules and rotating shifts
Answer
A. Sleep deprivation
11
A bed which will remain empty until the admission of another client is
Answer
A. Closed bed
12
Bad breath is otherwise known as
Answer
C. Halitosis
13
What is the standard procedure to verify initial placement of nasogastric feeding tube
Answer
B. Radiographic examination
14
Position used for administering enema is
Answer
C. Left lateral with right knee flexed
15
Bed cradle is used to
Answer
A. Support and take off the weight of the top bed cloths
16
Local application of moist heat to the pelvis or rectal area by sitting in a basin filled with warm water is called
Answer
D. Sitz bath
17
Pressure ulcer in which partial thickness skin loss with exposed dermis is :
Answer
B. Stage 2
18
Alteration in respiration characterized by the irregular respiratory rhythm with alternating periods of apnea and hyperventilation is called
Answer
B. Cheyne stokes respiration
19
Most accurate site for measuring temperature among the following is
Answer
A. Rectal
20
For a patient admitted with breathing difficulty, most appropriate position to promote maximum lung expansion is
Answer
C. Fowler's position
21
Contraindication to hot water bag application is
Answer
A. Acute appendicitis
22
Steam under pressure sterilization is also known as
Answer
C. Autoclaving
23
During nasogastric tube insertion, if the patient starts chocking, immediately
Answer
C. Withdraw tube
24
The difference between apical pulse and radial pulse is
Answer
D. Pulse deficit
25
What assisting with lumbar puncture insection, the position used to withdraw CSF sample is
Answer
B. Lateral recumbent position, with legs pulled up and head bent down onto chest
26
What is the correct way to cleanse the perineal area before catheter insertion?
Answer
C. Use soap and water, moving from the urethra outwards
27
When collecting the arterial blood gas sample, which of the following should be avoided?
Answer
D. Shake the sample vigorously before sending to the lab
28
The lowest percentage of inspired oxygen is delivered by
Answer
A. Nasal Cannula
29
Which of the following indicate paracentesis is effective for the patient?
Answer
C. Reduction in abdominal distension
30
What does FN4C stands for?
Answer
B. Fine needle aspiration cytology
31
Intercostal drainage tube is not commonly used to treat which of the following condition
Answer
D. Tuberculosis
32
What indicate proper functioning of a chest tube?
Answer
A. Continuous bubbling in water seal chamber
33
Liver mortis is
Answer
C. Setting of blood in dependent body parts
34
What is the main purpose of lying the jaw and closing the eyes in dead body care?
Answer
B. To maintain natural appearance
35
What is the correct compression to ventilation ratio for an adult during single rescuer CPR?
Answer
D. 30:2
36
Which urine test is used to detect ketone bodies?
Answer
C. Rothera's test
37
The most common site of bone marrow aspiration in children under 2 years is
Answer
A. Tibia
38
What type of needle is typically used for bore marrow aspiration?
Answer
C. Jamshidi Needle
39
Which is not a type of patient admission?
Answer
A. internal referral discharge
40
When performing eye care for an unconscious patient, one should
Answer
C. Apply prescribed lubricants
41
What is the primary mechanism by which antibodies protect against viral infections?
Answer
A. Neutralization of viral particles
42
What is the typical pore size that HEPA filters are designed to capture with a minimum efficiency of 99.97 %?
Answer
B. 0.3 microns
43
What is the typical concentration of povidone - iodine Routinely used?
Answer
C. 10%
44
What is the primary purpose of using biological indicators in sterilization processes?
Answer
C. To assess the efficacy of a sterilization
45
"Cerebrospinal fever" is the example of
Answer
D. Prosodemic infection
46
According to the World Health Organization (WHO), What is considered the gold standard method for monitoring hand hygiene adherence?
Answer
B. Direct observation
47
Which of the following fungal infections is most likely to cause pneumonia in immuno compromised individuals?
Answer
B. Aspergillosis
48
What is the primary purpose of a positive pressure room in the context of protective isolation?
Answer
B. To protect immunocompromised patients from airborne pathogens in the surrounding environment
49
What is the recommended minimum Air Change per Hour (ACH) for a protective environment room, such as those used for immunocompromised patients?
Answer
B. 12 ACH
50
What do the 3Rs stand for in the waste management hierarchy?
Answer
A. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
51
Carbohydrates provide __________ kcal/gram of energy
Answer
B. 4
52
Rickets, the softening and weakening of bones in children is caused due to the deficiency of Vitamin
Answer
D. D
53
Which food has the most Vitamin C content per 100 gram?
Answer
B. Guava
54
The diet adjusted to meet the specific nutritional needs of a person with a particular illness or condition is called a _________ diet.
Answer
A. Therapeutic
55
Which blood test is indicated immediately after snake bite to rule out potential envenomation / fatality due to snake bite?
Answer
D. Blood clotting parameters
56
A technique used to dislodge a foreign body by compressing the upper abdomen thereby forcing the diaphragm upwards, expelling the residual air in the lungs is called _________ maneuvre
Answer
A. Heimlich
57
During crush injury to the chest, when ribs are broken the paradoxical respiration that results is called __________ chest.
Answer
D. Flail
58
The difference between the apical and radial pulse rate is called
Answer
D. Pulse deficit
59
The antidote for Organophosphorus poisoning is
Answer
B. Atropine
60
When a person ingests heroin and other opiates, pupils appear
Answer
A. Contracted
61
In cardiopulmonary resuscitation, for one person CPR, the ratio between chest compressions and rescue breaths is
Answer
D. 30:2
62
An international restriction of a persons voluntary movement and behaviour during physical examination and to protect from injury is called a/an
Answer
A. restraint
63
Which one of the following is not a theory related to personality?
Answer
D. Peplau's theory of interpersonal relations
64
Which one of the following refers to a basic form of learning in which one stimulus comes to serve as a signal for the occurrence of a second stimulus?
Answer
A. Classical conditioning
65
Which of the following tests uses a variety of verbal and performance sub tests to provide an over all score of intelligence and index scores related to verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning, working memory and processing speed?
Answer
B. Wechsler Test
66
Which neurotransmitter plays a role in the regulation of mood, and in the control of eating, sleep, and arousal?
Answer
C. Serotonin
67
Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissue?
Answer
C. Protection
68
Which bone is part of the axial skeleton?
Answer
C. Sternum
69
Identify the correct match from the table below : Digestive Enzymes Lipase Fat Amylase Protein Pepsin Protein Maltase Starch
Answer
C. Only Amylase is incorrect
70
Which hormone regulates circadian rhythms?
Answer
B. Melatonin
71
Which statement about the nephron is TRUE?
Answer
B. Loop of Henle concentrates urine
72
The right lung has ______________ lobes and the left lung has __________ lobes.
Answer
B. 3, 2
73
Which cranial nerve controls eye movement and papillary constriction?
Answer
C. Oculomotor
74
Match the glands to their secretions : i. Thyroid - a. Insulin ii. Pancreas - b. Thyroxine iii. Adrenal - c. Cortisol iv. Parathyroid - d. PTH
Answer
A. i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
75
A stroke in the left cerebral hemisphere is most likely to affect which function?
Answer
B. Speech production
76
Which receptor type is most involved in detecting sound vibrations?
Answer
B. Hair cells in cochlea
77
Based on the table below, identify the correct cardiac event : ECG Interpretation P wave Atrial depolarization QRS Atrial repolarization T wave Ventricular repolarization
Answer
C. QRS complex is incorrect
78
Which structure is involved in voluntary motor control?
Answer
D. Cerebral cortex (precentral gyrus)
79
Which is a TRUE statement about the female reproductive system?
Answer
C. LH surge triggers ovulation
80
Which component of skeletal muscle allows for contraction?
Answer
B. Myosin sliding over actin
81
Based on the following table of hormone effects, which hormone increases basal metabolic rate? Hormonal Effects Insulin ↓ Blood glucose Cortisol ↑ Gluconeogenesis Throxine ↑ BMR ADH ↑ Water reabsorption
Answer
B. Thyroxine
82
Sheehan's syndrome is directly related to
Answer
A. Hypovolemia related to postpartum haemorrhage
83
Which of the following is false regarding hCG?
Answer
D. It is secreted by cytotrophoblast
84
Palmer's sign in pregnancy refers to
Answer
C. Rhythmic contractions of uterus
85
The most effective form of postpartum contraception is
Answer
B. Cu-T 380 A
86
Which of the following is not a feature of cervical ripening?
Answer
A. Increase in collagen
87
Couvelaire uterus is seen in
Answer
A. Concealed type of abruptio placenta
88
Commonest cause of recurrent first trimester abortion is
Answer
C. Chromosomal abnormalities
89
All of the following are radiological evidences of IUFD except
Answer
B. Shelving sign
90
Birth weight quadruples by
Answer
C. 2 years
91
Webbed neck is seen in
Answer
D. Turner syndrome
92
Baggy pant appearance of skin in the gluteal fold is seen in
Answer
A. Marasmus
93
The main hormone responsible for galactopoiesis is
Answer
A. Prolactin
94
Type of play in schooler
Answer
D. Competitive play
95
Which among the following Anti Tubercular drug is bacteriostatic?
Answer
D. Ethambutol
96
Which among the following communicable disease is characterized by "Per soup diarrhoea"?
Answer
B. Typhoid Fever
97
Which is the first country to launch Nationwide Family Planning Programme?
Answer
C. India
98
Which of the following compound causes temporary hardness of water?
Answer
D. Magnesium bicarbonate
99
Waste water from kitchen and bathrooms that does not contain human excreta refers to :
Answer
B. Sullage
100
Which among the following vectors transmits Malaria?
Answer
A. Anopheles mosquito
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