| Post Name | Manager Quality Control - Kerala Co Operative Milk Marketing Federation Ltd |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 028/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 372/2024 |
| Date of Test | 18 February 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following is major whey protein?
Answer
C. -lactoglobulin
2
During hydrogenation, ________ is converted into _________.
Answer
D. Oleic acid, Stearic Acid
3
The following amino acid is involved in the formation of disulļ¬de bonds in protein structure
Answer
C. Cysteine
4
In milk proteose peptone fraction is present. Which of the following statement is true?
Answer
A. Proteose-peptone fraction in milk is mainly derived from -casein
5
With respect to whey proteins in milk, choose the incorrect statement
Answer
A. whey proteins are a heterogeneous family of phosphoproteins
6
Which of the following component of milk salt system is completely present in dissolved state?
Answer
A. Chloride
7
Read the below mentioned statements (i) Koestler number is an indirect indicator of mastitis in dairy cows (ii) A Koestler Number < 2 indicates normal milk while a value > 3 is considered abnormal Choose the correct option
Answer
C. Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct
8
During ripening of cheese, dephosphorylation of casein occurs mainly due to the activity of enzyme
Answer
B. Acid phosphatase
9
Which of the following statement is/are correct about unsaponiļ¬able matter in ghee? (i) Cholesterol is a part of unsaponiļ¬able matter in ghee (ii) Fat soluble vitamins are part of unsaponiļ¬able matter in ghee (iii) Monoglycerides are part of unsaponiļ¬able matter in ghee
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
10
How much percentage is contributed by saturated fatty acid in milk fat?
Answer
B. 65 - 67%
11
Read the below mentioned statements : (i) Phospholipids are a class of lipids consisting of phosphoric acids, nitrogen base, alcohol and fatty acids. (ii) Fatty acids in phospholipids are usually short chain. Choose the correct option
Answer
A. Only statement (i) is correct
12
Read the below mentioned statements (i) Calcium in the milk is mainly present in colloidal form (ii) Colloidal form of calcium is mainly associated with casein micelle through alanine Choose the correct option
Answer
A. Only statement (i) is correct
13
With respect to non-protein nitrogen in milk, which of the following statement is incorrect?
Answer
D. Proteose-peptones are part of non-protein nitrogen
14
Read the below mentioned statements : (i) The major dietary form of vitamin D obtained from foods of animal origin is cholecalciferol (ii) Cholecalciferol is also known as vitamin D2 (iii) The principal physiological role of vitamin D in the body is to maintain the level of plasma calcium by stimulating its absorption from the gastrointestinal tract Choose the correct option
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii) are correct
15
Which of the following can be used as an index of heat treatment of milk?
Answer
C. Formation of Lactulose content
16
Which of the following statement/s is/are CORRECT? (i) Leptin is a growth factor present in human milk. (ii) Leptin, a metabolic hormone in human milk, is linked with appetite regulation and energy balance in infants. (iii) Leptin is a bioactive peptide found in bovine colostrum in higher amount with levels decreasing in mature milk. (iv) Leptin is a bioactive lipid present in human as well as bovine milk.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
17
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Answer
B. Feathering is mainly a protein instability defect in reconstituted milk
18
Which of the following statement/s is/are CORRECT? (i) Evaporated Milk has added lactose, whereas, Sweetened Condensed Milk (SCM) has added sucrose. (ii) Salt balance refers to the ratio of salts of (Ca+Mg)/(Citrate+Phosphates). (iii) Salt balance is disturbed during preparation of SCM or evaporated milk and therefore, calcium chloride and/or magnesium chlorides are added in it to prevent age gelation during storage. (iv) Trisodium citrate or disodium phosphate are added as stabilizers in evaporated milk to correct the increased levels of Ca and Mg.
Answer
D. Only (ii) and (iv)
19
During storage of sweetened condensed milk, Maillard browning is accelerated mainly due to
Answer
A. High protein-lactose content
20
Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
Answer
A. The lactose content is higher in human milk than in bovine milk
21
On heating, heat stability of milk is increased due to :
Answer
B. Insolubilization of calcium phosphate and shift from soluble Ca to CCP
22
Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
Answer
B. In blue-veined cheese, the characterisitic lipolysis is mainly caused by Penicillium roqueforti and not by starter lactic acid bacteria
23
Which enzyme is primarily responsible for the initial breakdown of -casein in Cheddar cheese ripening?
Answer
A. Plasmin
24
Which of the following protein is primarily hydrolysed during the rennet coagulation of milk during cheese making?
Answer
D. -casein
25
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Answer
C. Keļ¬r and Koumiss are fermented drinks, contain approximately 4 and 9% ethanol, respectively, which is produced by lactic acid bacteria
26
To determine the oxidative stability of ghee or butter, the following parameters should be tested :
Answer
A. Peroxide value, p-anisidine value, TBA value
27
There are four ghee samples (T1-T4) having diļ¬erent RM and BR values (Reichert-Meissl value : RM; Butyro- refractometer reading : BR) as follows : T1 : RM = 30, BR = 42 T2 : RM = 26, BR = 40 T3 : RM = 24, BR = 44 T4 : RM = 21, BR = 37 Keeping in mind the standards prescribed by FSSAI, which sample has the highest probability of being adulterated with hydrogenated vegetable oil or animal body fat?
Answer
D. T4
28
To neutralize sour cream having high SNF and high acidity (>0.45% lactic acid) for butter making, which of the following is desirable :
Answer
B. Double neutralization using calcium hydroxide followed by sodium bicarbonate
29
Which of the following statement/s is/are CORRECT in respect of ice cream : (i) Antifreeze proteins bind to small ice crystals and inhibit their growth during temperature ļ¬uctuations and storage (ii) Ice structuring proteins bind to large ice crystals and disintegrate them, producing smooth-textured ice cream during storage. (iii) Antifreeze proteins inhibit ice recrystallization, thus preventing a ''grainy'' texture in ice cream. (iv) Antifreeze proteins cause a depression in freezing point of water and thus prevent the melting of ice cream during temperature ļ¬uctuations.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (iii)
30
Aging of ice cream mix is essential mainly for
Answer
D. Crystallization of fat and hydration of proteins
31
As per the methods prescribed in FSSAI, consider the following statements for cheese sampling 1. Large blocks of cheese must be used from multiple locations to draw a representative sample of cheese 2. The cheese sample should be stored at 10 to 12Ā°C 3. The rind of cheese must be always excluded, to avoid bias in analytical results. 4. Intensive grating or kneading is advisable, in case sample cannot be grated due to some reasons. Which of the given statements are correct?
Answer
C. 1, 2 and 4
32
Quality Council of India was set up as PPP model as an independent autonomous organization with the support of 1. Government of India 2. Associated chambers of commerce and industry of India (ASSOCHAM) 3. Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) 4. Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) Which of the following is correct?
Answer
B. All (1, 2, 3 and 4)
33
Which Management cycle is most closely associated with Kaizen philosophy?
Answer
D. PDCA
34
Which of the following reļ¬ects the application of ''Process approach'' under TQM in Dairy Industry?
Answer
C. Controlling CCP's such as temperature and time during process and CIP operations
35
The primary objective of HACCP is
Answer
A. Identifying and control food safety hazards during processing
36
Which of the following functions is exclusive under the APEDA as its statutory mandate? 1. APEDA is responsible for ļ¬xing standards and speciļ¬cations for processed products meant for export purposes. 2. It also provides ļ¬nancial assistance for export development, infrastructure and quality improvement 3. APEDA issues FSSAI food safety licenses required for domestic sale in Indian markets 4. It registers exporters of scheduled products Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer
C. 1, 2 and 4
37
Which statement is mandatory for milk powder label intended for consumer / retails sale?
Answer
B. Contains milk-allergen declaration
38
Which of the following statements describe appropriately the role of AGMARK in ghee grading and certiļ¬cation? 1. AGMARK prescribes quality standards and grading requirements for ghee 2. AGMARK certiļ¬cation is voluntary 3. AGMARK ghee must conform to prescribed physico-chemical parameters 4. The certiļ¬cation assures quality but does not replace food safety licensing Which of the above-mentioned statements are correct?
Answer
C. All (1, 2, 3 and 4)
39
The main mandate of GMP is focused on
Answer
D. Consistency in production of products under hygienic environment
40
According to FSSAI Guidelines, a Quality Control Laboratory of dairy must ensure
Answer
D. Adequate infrastructure, trained personnel, and validated test procedures
41
Assertion (A) : Calibration of milk testing glassware must be carried out using distilled water at a speciļ¬ed reference temperature. Reason (R) : Volume markings on glassware are inļ¬uenced by thermal expansion of both liquid and glass.
Answer
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
42
Which of the following statements regarding detection of neutralizers in milk are correct? (i) Rosalic acid test detects alkaline substances added to milk (ii) Sodium carbonate raises the titratable acidity of milk (iii) Neutralizers may mask spoilage during platform tests
Answer
A. Only (i) and (iii)
43
Migration testing of dairy packaging materials is primarily performed to assess :
Answer
C. Transfer of harmful substances into food
44
Antibiotic residues in milk are of concern mainly because they :
Answer
B. Interfere with starter culture activity
45
Consider the following statements related to UV spectrophotometry : (i) Chromophores absorb radiation in the UV-Visible region (ii) Deviations from Beer-Lambert law occur at high analyte concentrations (iii) Path length has no inļ¬uence on absorbance which is/are correct?
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
46
Which analytical approach provides highest speciļ¬city for conļ¬rmation of pesticide residues in dairy products?
Answer
C. GC coupled with selective detectors
47
The principal advantage of High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) over TLC in dairy analysis is its :
Answer
C. Higher resolution and sensitivity
48
Heavy metals such as lead and cadmium in milk are most accurately quantiļ¬ed using :
Answer
B. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
49
Laboratory auditing in a dairy quality control laboratory primarily ensures :
Answer
B. Compliance with documented quality systems
50
Food traceability systems in the dairy sector are mainly intended to
Answer
C. Track product history from farm to consumer
51
A sample of heat treated cream was found to have high numbers of micrococci, staphylococci and lactobacilli. Identify the reason for such high count observed in cream. I. Cream was stored prolong at 5Ā°C II. Cream was contaminated and not immediate cooled after heat treatment III. Psychotropic count was higher initially IV. There was post production contamination of the cream may be due to utensils and environment.
Answer
A. Only II and IV
52
Which of the following produces phospholipase in stored raw milk have potential to exaggerate the problem of rancidity by damaging phospholipids and exposing the globule triglycerides to lipase action?
Answer
B. Psychrotrophs
53
Which of the following statements are corrects regarding Lactoperoxidase-Thiocynate-Hydrogen Peroxidase system? I. Lactoperoxidase is an enzyme which is naturally secreted in milk II. Thiocynate is the substrate for Superoxidase enzyme present in varying concentrations in milk III. Amount of thiocyanate in milk depends on the health of the animal IV. Third component is hydrogen peroxide which acts as a catalyst and it is supplied by streptococci and lactobacilli present within an under
Answer
D. Only I and IV
54
Which of the following statements are false for Thermoduric microļ¬ora? I. Thermoduric microorganism are those which survive but can grow at pasteurization temperatures. II. The count of this group is determined by plating the milk after laboratory pasteurization (63Ā°C for 30 min) on Skim Milk Agar and incubating plates at 37Ā°C for 48-72 Hrs. III. Among the major group present in milk, Microbacterium shows 80% resistance to pasteurization. IV. This group microbacterium comes in milk through improperly cleaned utensils.
Answer
C. Only I, II and III
55
Arrange the following membrane processes based on membrane pore size in descending order I. Nanoļ¬ltration II. Microļ¬ltration III. Ultraļ¬ltration IV. Reverse Osmosis
Answer
D. IV, I, III, II
56
As per FSSAI milk and milk products are usually fortiļ¬ed with which vitamin?
Answer
B. Vitamin A and D
57
Bacteria that are pathogenic for humans are classiļ¬ed as
Answer
A. Mesophiles
58
Identify which of the mentioned statement/s is/are true? I. Food already content synthesized toxins responsible for food poising symptom is called intoxication and example of such pathogen is staphylococcus aureus. II. Ingestion of viable pathogen along with food and their adhesion to organs is called food infection and example is Salmonella typhi. III. Organisms enter along with food and product toxin in-situ is called toxi-infection and example is Bacillus cereus. IV. Food Poising caused by E.coli comes under food intoxication.
Answer
C. I, II and III, IV
59
If water content in butter is 15% and salt added @ 2.3%, the salt when dissolved in water will give a concentration of
Answer
C. 15.33
60
Three samples of evaporated milk were examined for defects. Details of these defects are : Sample 1 : Observed gas production with undesirable foul smell Sample 2 : Observed break down of protein bitter taste Sample 3 : Observed breakdown of protein with ļ¬shy ļ¬avour Choose the correct defect and causative agents from listed below : I. Sample 1 showed gassy fermentation it may be due to Micrococci and lactobacilli II. Sample 2 showed bitterness defect and it may be due to Aerobic spore formers like B. Cereus III. Sample 3 showed Fishy ļ¬avour defect and due to Pseudomonas ichthyosmus
Answer
A. II and III
61
Steps for instantization of Milk powder are mentioned. Arrange these steps in ascending order of its occurrence. I. Re-drying with hot ļ¬ltered air II. Agglomeration where particle collides and for clusters III. Wetting the surface of particle with steam or atomized water IV. Colling of the particles
Answer
D. III, II, I, IV
62
Stabilization of salt is necessary when buļ¬alo milk is used for production of Sweetened Condensed milk because I. Buļ¬alo milk content higher Calcium salt II. Buļ¬alo milk have incorrect salt balance ratio of 0.7 : 1.0 III. Buļ¬alo milk content lower amount of calcium and higher Magnesium IV. Buļ¬alo milk have higher CNF than cow milk Which statement/s is/are correct?
Answer
B. I and II only
63
Starter distillates are added in butter for ļ¬avour production. Here are some statement mentioned below. Choose correct statement/s from the options provided. I. The non-volatile ļ¬avour compounds obtained from liquid starter by steam distillation are called starter distillates. II. In growth medium maximum amount of acetaldehyde accumulated by the culture gets oxidized into diacetyl during distillation III. Generally distillate is added @ 3-7 mg diacetyl/ml of the distillate during butter production process
Answer
B. III only
64
FSSAI standards for ice cream is given below; Identify which standards are correct as per the authority. I. Total-plate count must be within 1 Ć 105 (m) to 2Ć105 (M) cfu/g II. Coliform count must be within 10(m) to 100 (M) cfu/g III. Listeria monocytogenes must be absent in 1 g of sample (M) IV. E.coli must be absent in 1 g of sample (M)
Answer
B. I, II, III, IV
65
Below are some statements regarding to bacterial thickening of Sweetened Condensed Milk. Identify the wrong statement/s. I. Bacterial thickening of Sweetened Condensed Milk leads to disagreeable creamy taste and odour II. Thickened product when diluted with water and heated the curd separates distinguish from heat or age thickening III. This is due to the production of rennin like enzyme by organisms, which acts on milk carbohydrates IV. Responsible organisms are Micrococcus pyogenes, S.aureus, S. albus, B . Subtilis and Certain yeasts
Answer
B. I and III
66
Primary metabolites are generally produced in _________ phase as well as secondary metabolites are produced in __________ phase of bacterial growth in foods.
Answer
C. Lag and Stationery
67
Time required to kill 90% organisms is called
Answer
A. D value
68
Most widely used ionizing radiation in food processing are
Answer
C. Gamma
69
Radiation sterilization is also called _________
Answer
B. Radappertization
70
Fermentation comes from the Latin verb fevere, which means to
Answer
C. Boil
71
In downstream processing, __________ is carried out at the end of fermentation.
Answer
D. Recovery of molecules
72
A food product that has a water activity below that which is require for the growth of microorganisms and IMF have a water activity between _________
Answer
D. 0.6-0.9
73
Illness occurs as a consequence of ingesting a preformed bacterial or mold toxin because of its growth in a food, is termed as ________
Answer
D. Intoxication
74
Colicin is produced by
Answer
A. E. coli
75
The 12D concept is a food-safety standard in canning, ensuring thermal processing reduces deadly ______ spores by 12 log cycles (a factor of 10Ā¹Ā²) for low-acid foods.
Answer
D. Clostridium botulinum
76
Chitin (poly-(b -1Ā® 4)-2-amino-2-deoxy-d-glucopyranose) is the major source of chitosan, which is obtained by removing the _______ from chitin.
Answer
A. Acetyl group (CH3-CO)
77
Violet Red Bile Agar media is solely used for the enumeration of _________ bacteria.
Answer
B. Gram negative
78
Spore-forming bacteria, produce large amounts of _____ a unique molecule in their dormant spores that's crucial for extreme heat resistance and DNA protection.
Answer
D. Calcium Dipicolinate
79
Nisin is eļ¬ective against ___________ bacteria applied in food biopreservation.
Answer
A. Gram positive
80
Illness occurs from ingesting a large number of viable cells of some pathogenic bacteria through contaminated food and water and the bacterial cells either sporulate or die and release toxins to produce the symptoms, is termed as _________
Answer
A. Toxicoinfection
81
Moisture content of dried starter culture must be ________
Answer
D. <3%
82
Bacteriophages are viruses that attack bacteria and are highly _________ speciļ¬c.
Answer
B. Host
83
Proteinaceous compounds produced by bacteria which are inhibitory to many bacterial species are known as
Answer
C. Bacteriocin
84
In the ___________ , the starter culture transfer from one container to another relies on squeezing the polythene bottle to eject the culture.
Answer
A. Lewis system
85
Phage inhibitory/Phage resistant medium contain chelating agents that binds __________ions
Answer
A. Calcium and Magnesium
86
The type of starter culture in which more than two strains in known proportion are used is _______.
Answer
B. Multiple mixed strain
87
The type of starter operating system that deliberately exposes the cultures to phages for production of phage resistant mutants
Answer
C. Dutch P/L system
88
The aroma compound produced by lactic acid bacteria that have antimicrobial activity is ________.
Answer
A. Diacetyl
89
The method of starter preservation in which water content is removed by freezing followed by sublimation
Answer
B. Freeze drying
90
Exopolysaccharide Keļ¬ran contains D-glucose and D-galactose in ratio _______.
Answer
D. 1:1
91
Which of the following correctly matches the ISO 9000 family standards with their primary purpose?
Answer
B. ISO 9000 - Fundamentals and vocabulary ISO 9001 - Requirements for a quality management system ISO 9004 - Guidelines for performance improvement
92
A processing step may be considered a Critical Control Point (CCP) when :
Answer
B. No further step exists to eliminate or reduce the hazard to an acceptable level
93
HARPC stands for ________.
Answer
C. Hazard Analysis and Risk-Based Preventive Controls
94
Which statements regarding Operational Prerequisite Program-OPRPs are TRUE? 1. OPRPs control signiļ¬cant hazards 2. OPRPs have action criteria 3. OPRPs always replace CCPs 4. OPRPs require monitoring
Answer
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
95
Which class II BSC type has 100% exhaust air (no recirculation)?
Answer
D. Type B2
96
A key conļ¬rmatory test for S. aureus in ISO 6882-2 is _______.
Answer
C. Coagulase test
97
TSI agar contains which of the following sugars?
Answer
B. Glucose, lactose, sucrose
98
Which of the following is the basis of the VIDAS principle?
Answer
C. Enzyme-linked ļ¬uorescent Assay (ELFA)
99
As per FSSAI for Microbiological standards for Milk and Milk Products - Food Safety Criteria, how many genera of microorganisms are described?
Answer
A. 5
100
Which among the following statements are correct? Statement A : The selective medium for Bacillus cereus is MYP agar Statement B : Bacillus cereus is catalase negative.
Answer
D. A is correct and B is correct
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