| Post Name | Marketing Manager - COIRFED |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 012/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 428/2024 |
| Date of Test | 23 January 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following best explains how Performance Marketing functions within Holistic Marketing approach ?
Answer
C. It ensures all marketing initiatives are judged by their contribution to legal, ethical, social and environmental performance
2
Which of the following statements best captures the fundamental distinction between the selling concept and the marketing concept ?
Answer
B. The selling concept assumes that consumers will purchase as long as products are made available, whereas the marketing concept assumes that consumers will not buy unless their needs and preferences are deeply understood and addressed
3
A ļ¬rm launches a new smart-appliance brand and notices the following problems across its customer value chain : i. Customers perceive the product as innovative, but are unsure why it is superior to existing options. ii. Retail partners report that inventory turnover is slow due to inconsistent availability in regional warehouses. iii. Early adopters express strong satisfaction but mention that the product feels overpriced relative to alternatives. iv. User feedback suggests that a key feature, remote energy monitoring is not intuitive and feels incomplete. Based on the value-based interpretation of the 4Ps which of the following diagnoses accurately maps each issue to the correct value function ?
Answer
C. (i) Communication failure, (ii) Value delivery gap, (iii) Value capture issue, (iv) Value creation gap
4
In the G-STIC framework for marketing planning (Goal Strategy Tactics Implementation Control), the elements of the marketing mix (such as the 4Ps or 7Ts) are primarily part of which component ?
Answer
C. Tactics
5
Which of the following statements correctly reļ¬ects how marketing inļ¬uences customer behaviour ?
Answer
A. Basic human needs exist independently, but marketing shapes the ways people express those needs as wants
6
A consumer is evaluating smartphones. She begins by scanning all available brands in the market and gradually narrows them down to a ļ¬nal decision. Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of her decision-making funnel ?
Answer
B. Total set Awareness set Consideration set Choice set Final choice
7
Under the Expectancy-Value approach, consumers rate brands on key attributes and integrate these ratings to form an overall judgement. This structured comparison occurs during which stage of the consumer decision-making process ?
Answer
B. Evaluation of alternatives
8
In a Business-to-Business Buying Centre, which role is responsible for controlling the ļ¬ow of information to other participants and restricting seller access ?
Answer
A. Gatekeepers
9
A manufacturing company has been buying the same grade of steel plates from Vendor X for ļ¬ve years. Recently, product defects were noticed and the engineering team suggested exploring better grades or switching to another vendor. The procurement team starts reviewing speciļ¬cations and invites new bids. Which buying situation best ļ¬ts this scenario ?
Answer
B. Modiļ¬ed rebuy
10
A steel manufacturer notices that demand from its largest B2B customers, construction ļ¬rms, remains volatile even though steel prices and quality are stable. Further investigation shows that ļ¬uctuations are closely linked to changes in home loan interest rates aļ¬ecting individual homebuyers. This is an example of :
Answer
B. Derived demand
11
In a Marketing Mix Model, the contribution of TV advertising shows a saturation curve, where incremental sales response decreases at higher spending levels. This eļ¬ect is best described as :
Answer
B. Diminishing marginal return
12
A ļ¬nancial services brand releases an investment ad containing both (a) detailed risk-return graphs and (b) a well-known retired cricketer endorsing the product. Post-campaign analysis reveals : ā¢ Viewers with high ļ¬nancial literacy showed stable attitude change, even though many did not recall the celebrity. ā¢ Viewers with low involvement recalled the celebrity but showed no change in long-term attitudes. ā¢ A subset of viewers with moderate involvement recalled both the graphs and the celebrity, but their subsequent behaviour aligned more with emotional appeal than analytical reasoning. Which interpretation BEST reļ¬ects how the Elaboration Likelihood Model explains these outcomes ?
Answer
A. High-literacy viewers used the central route, while low-involvement viewers used the peripheral route; the moderate group shows simultaneous dual processing where peripheral cues can bias the interpretation of central information
13
A consumer buys an expensive pair of running shoes. After the purchase, she : ā¢ searches for additional online reviews, ā¢ avoids videos that favour competing brands, ā¢ exaggerates the importance of the comfort feature (which her chosen brand excels in), ā¢ and downplays the superior durability of a brand she rejected. These behaviours indicate that the consumer is MOST likely :
Answer
A. Attempting to reduce psychological tension arising from a recent commitment
14
Which of the following are examples of behavioural segmentation variables ? i. Occasion of purchase ii. Brand loyalty status iii. User rate (heavy, medium, light users) iv. Personality traits v. Age group Select the correct combination :
Answer
A. i, ii, iii
15
Bain's Frederick Reichheld suggests that only one customer question really matters : "How likely is it that you would recommend this product or service to a friend or colleague ?" This forms the basis of the Net Promoter Score (NPS). Consider the following statements : i. While capturing NPS, customers are given a 0-10 scale on which to rate the likelihood of their recommending the company. ii. Detractors (who gave a score of 0 to 6) are subtracted from the Promoters (who gave a score of 7 to 10). iii. Detractors (who gave a score of 0 to 6) are subtracted from the Promoters (who gave a score of 9 to 10), and Passively satisļ¬ed customers (who gave 7 or 8) are ignored. iv. NPS is the only scale which can measure customer satisfaction. v. NPS is a direct measure of repeat purchase behaviour. Which of the above statements are correct ?
Answer
B. i and iii
16
Two internet service providers oļ¬er identical download speeds and network coverage. Provider A has marginally better technical uptime (fewer outages), but its sign-up process is confusing, customer support is slow and billing plans are rigid. provider B has the same core service performance but oļ¬ers a simple onboarding process, clear communication and highly ļ¬exible billing options. Customers overwhelmingly prefer Provider B. Which interpretation BEST aligns with the value concepts described in the passage ?
Answer
C. Provider B lowers psychological and monetary costs, thereby increasing total customer value even without superior functional performance
17
A ļ¬rm is evaluating its ability to enter a new wellness-products market. During its 5C analysis, the marketing team examines : ā¢ Its manufacturing technology and scalability ā¢ Its brand reputation in health categories ā¢ Its ļ¬nancial ļ¬exibility to fund product launches ā¢ Its internal R and D expertise ā¢ Its organizational culture and speed of decision-making. These factors belong to which component of the 5C Framework ?
Answer
B. Company
18
A company traditionally deļ¬nes itself as "a manufacturer of home appliances" and focuses on improving product features such as durability and power eļ¬ciency. After rethinking its strategy, the company begins to view its business as "helping households manage comfort, convenience and daily living tasks". According to the passage, which conceptual shift BEST explains this transformation ?
Answer
B. A shift from a product-oriented to a market-value-oriented deļ¬nition, because the ļ¬rm now frames its purpose around the broader customer need it fulļ¬ls
19
Which managerial action is most appropriate to address negative sentiment among the general public ? (i) Revising dividend policies (ii) Increasing trade promotions (iii) Strengthening corporate communication and brand image (iv) Renegotiating supplier contracts
Answer
A. Only (iii)
20
A company uses data analytics to group consumers based on purchasing frequency, timing and usage context. This reļ¬ects : (i) Psychographic segmentation (ii) Behavioural segmentation (iii) Demographic segmentation (iv) Geographic segmentation
Answer
B. Only (ii)
21
A ļ¬ntech startup oļ¬ers customized loan products based on individual credit behaviour and app usage patterns. This targeting strategy represents : (i) Diļ¬erentiated targeting (ii) Concentrated targeting (iii) Micromarketing (iv) Undiļ¬erentiated targeting
Answer
C. Only (iii)
22
Amul leverages trust, aļ¬ordability and national identity to appeal across consumer segments. This positioning is primarily : (i) User-category positioning (ii) Cultural and value-based positioning (iii) Attribute-based positioning (iv) Niche positioning
Answer
B. Only (ii)
23
Kotler argues that points of diļ¬erence must be : (i) Unique, aļ¬ordable and legally protected (ii) Desirable, deliverable and diļ¬erentiating (iii) Emotional symbolic and experiential (iv) Visible, tangible and measurable
Answer
B. Only (ii)
24
According to Porter, high switching costs for buyers primarily : (i) Increase the threat of substitutes (ii) Intensify rivalry among competitors (iii) Increase supplier bargaining power (iv) Reduce buyer bargaining power
Answer
C. Only (iv)
25
Which statement best distinguishes PESTEL analysis from Porter's Five Forces ? (i) PESTEL focuses on micro-environment, while Five Forces focus on macro- environment. (ii) PESTEL analysis external macro factors, while Five Forces analyse industry structure. (iii) PESTEL is ļ¬rm-speciļ¬c, while Five Forces are industry-speciļ¬c. (iv) PESTEL replaces Five Forces in strategic analysis.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
26
Which type of marketing research most commonly uses qualitative techniques ? (i) Exploratory research (ii) Casual research (iii) Experimental research (iv) None of them
Answer
A. Only (i)
27
The BCG Matrix primarily uses which two dimensions ? (i) Industry proļ¬tability and ļ¬rm growth (ii) Market growth rate and relative market share (iii) Competitive intensity and demand variability (iv) Product life cycle and pricing strategy
Answer
B. Only (ii)
28
Which of the following best describes the Delphi method in demand forecasting ? (i) Uses past sales data to predict future demand (ii) Estimates sales using casual models (iii) Relies on structured expert opinion to reach consensus (iv) Applies moving averages for short-term forecasting
Answer
C. Only (iii)
29
A new cola brand emphasizes that it is as sweet and refreshing as the leading cola brands, without claiming any unique feature. This marketing strategy represents : (i) Point of Diļ¬erence (POD) (ii) Point of Parity (POP) (iii) Brand positioning (iv) Brand extension
Answer
B. Only (ii)
30
A tech company wants to launch a new wearable device. They : 1. Analyse past sales of similar products in diļ¬erent regions 2. Conduct surveys on customer preferences and willingness to pay 3. Interview ļ¬tness experts about market trends Which statements best describes the research approach ? (i) Entirely qualitative research (ii) Entirely quantitative research (iii) Mixed-method research combining exploratory and quantitative techniques (iv) Casual research only
Answer
C. Only (iii)
31
Which of the following are external factors in SWOT analysis ? (i) Apple's brand loyalty (ii) Rising demand for electric vehicles (iii) Tesla's limited production capacity (iv) Increasing competition in the EV market
Answer
D. Only (ii and iv)
32
In market research, a sample selected to represent the population ensures : (i) Validity (ii) Reliability (iii) Generalizability (iv) Casuality
Answer
C. Only (iii)
33
Which of the following is true for a Speciality Product ? (i) Their demand is elastic. (ii) Special eļ¬orts are made for purchasing these products. (iii) They are purchased without high buyer involvement.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
34
A shaving cream tube is an example of :
Answer
A. Primary Packaging
35
Based on the product levels __________ includes all the possible augmentations and changes the product may undergo in the future.
Answer
D. Potential Product
36
In Brand Portfolio of a ļ¬rm, which of the following is also known as ļ¬ghter brand ?
Answer
D. Flankers
37
Which of the following statement is/are true for rationalizing the brand portfolio ? (i) It involves maximizing the brand overlap and minimizing the market coverage. (ii) Milking is one of the rationalization strategies. (iii) Selling the brand is a portfolio rationalization strategy.
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
38
Identify the correct sequence of steps for New Product development :
Answer
A. Idea generation, Idea screening, Concept development and testing, Marketing strategy development, Business analysis, Product development, Marketing testing, Commercialization
39
Which of the following is true for Maturity Stage of Product Life Cycle : (i) Sales is increasing at decreasing rate. (ii) The advertising at this stage focuses more on awareness. (iii) The proļ¬t margins increase at this stage.
Answer
A. Only (i)
40
__________ is a special category in Product Life Cycle which come quickly into public view, are adopted with great enthusiasm, peak early and decline really fast.
Answer
C. Fad
41
The width of a product mix refers to :
Answer
C. The number of diļ¬erent product lines the company carries
42
Which of the following is True as per the Labelling guidelines for Packaged food in India ? (i) All the mandatory label particulars must be legible in English or Hindi (Devnagri script). (ii) List of ingredients is optional for all food items except single ingredient food on the label. (iii) The name of ingredients shall be listed in ascending order of their composition by weight or volume.
Answer
A. Only (i)
43
The promotion at Maturity stage of Product Life Cycle aims at :
Answer
D. Encourage brand switching
44
The Ecomark Scheme which provides accreditation and labelling for household and consumer products that meet speciļ¬c environmental criteria while maintaining quality standards as per Indian norms is administered by :
Answer
B. Central Pollution Control Board and Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
45
Which of the following are the steps of the pricing planning process ? (i) Delineation of various economic forces. (ii) Identiļ¬cation of consumer perceptions. (iii) Set pricing objectives.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
46
Producers make narrow assortments of products in large quantities, but consumers want broad assortments of products in small quantities. Which of the following functions fulļ¬ls the consumers' requirements ?
Answer
C. Marketing Channels
47
Sales management's challenge is to transform salespeople from customer advocates for price cuts into company advocates for value. Which of the following practices overcomes the above challenge ?
Answer
C. Value selling
48
Which of the following are the contexts of "Scarcity Pricing" ? (i) When consumers are price sensitive (ii) The introduction of a new product is so highly anticipated (iii) The product quality is high, so consumers are more willing to pay a high price to obtain it.
Answer
D. Only (ii and iii)
49
Which of the following distribution strategies are suitable for consumer electronics, furniture and home appliance brands ?
Answer
B. Selective distribution
50
As acceptance of Electric vehicles becomes more widespread, production volumes will accelerate and per-unit costs will decrease, allowing for lower prices while maintaining consistent margins. Which of the following pricing strategies are considered suitable for the above context ?
Answer
A. Experience curve pricing
51
Which of the following measures are taken by the management to boost sales force morale and performance ? (i) Organisational Climate (ii) Sales quotas (iii) Positive incentives
Answer
B. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
52
Restaurants and movie theatres often oļ¬er discounts to customers who visit during oļ¬-peak hours. Which of the following pricing strategies is followed in the above context by the organisations ?
Answer
A. Diļ¬erential Pricing Strategy
53
Which of the following are denoted by vertically integrated in both directions in the supply chain ? (i) An intermediary that exists between the organisation and the sources of raw materials. (ii) An intermediary that exists between the organisation and the retailer. (iii) Organisation controls several entities in the supply chain that are at the same level.
Answer
B. Only (i and ii)
54
During the presentation step of the selling process, the salesperson tells the "value story" to the buyer. Which of the following are important in the presentation ? (i) How the company's products and services ļ¬t the customer's needs. (ii) The salesperson's appearance, opening lines and follow-up remarks. (iii) Good listening skills and problem-solving skills.
Answer
D. Only (i and iii)
55
Suppose the manufacturer wants to earn a 20% markup on sales when the unit cost is Rs. 16, which of the following will be the markup price ?
Answer
A. Rs. 20
56
Which of the following aspects are included in the value-based pricing ? (i) Assess customer needs and value perceptions. (ii) Design a product to deliver the desired value at the target price. (iii) Convince buyers of the product's value.
Answer
B. Only (i and ii)
57
Written material which is to be set in type for the print media or spoken by announcers for broadcast commercials is called :
Answer
D. Copy
58
Name the advertising professional associated to Ogilvy, who died recently. He is famous for ads for Fevicol, Cadbury and Asian Paints, etc.
Answer
B. Piyush Pandey
59
A manufacturer oļ¬ers various incentives to the retailers during festival seasons for selling more quantities to the customers. This is called :
Answer
A. Trade promotion
60
A manufacturer wishes to conduct Sweepstakes as a part of promotion. Which of the following arguments are TRUE ? (i) The customer can participate in the lucky draw, if they conduct it. (ii) It is not necessary for the customer to purchase the brand produced by the manufacturer to enter in to the contest. (iii) The customer needs to purchase the product and show the proof of purchase to enter in to the contest. (iv) The sales executives will personally meet every customer.
Answer
A. (i) and (ii)
61
Sales promotion is commonly referred to as :
Answer
D. Below the line promotion
62
A manufacturer runs a program-length (usually a half-hour) televised commercial message resembling an entertainment or consumer aļ¬airs programs. This type of promotion is called :
Answer
B. Informercial
63
USP in promotion is :
Answer
B. Unique Selling Proposition
64
A car manufacturer aims to convince current purchasers that they made the right choice by showing satisļ¬ed customers enjoying the special features of their newly purchased cars made by this manufacturer. The manufacturer used :
Answer
D. Reinforcement advertising
65
Guerrilla marketing uses : (i) Surprise. (ii) Unconventional tactics. (iii) Creativity to create buzz. (iv) Low budgets.
Answer
D. All the above
66
Deļ¬ning the ___________ involves showing customers or stakeholders the unique beneļ¬ts, solutions and positive impact your product, service or ideas oļ¬er, focusing on solving their problems and meeting their needs, not just listing features, through empathy, clear messaging, data and storytelling to build connection and justify purchase.
Answer
D. Unique Value Proposition
67
Identify the stage which is NOT a part of the AIDA Model ?
Answer
B. Decision
68
Comparing Public Relations and Marketing, which of the following is NOT TRUE ? (i) PR professionals do write press releases, pitching positive stories about the company and building media relationships. Marketing professionals spend their time planning product launches, creating aļ¬liate programs and conducting client research. (ii) The PR department is focused mainly on reaching customers and prospects. The marketing department speaks to diļ¬erent audiences depending on the company's needs and the goodwill to be created. (iii) PR is focused on creating a positive image for the company and building a positive relationship with the company's various stakeholders. Marketing focuses on reaching customers and prospects and increasing sales for the company. (iv) PR professionals consider whether or not they eļ¬ectively create a positive buzz for the company. Marketing might look at whether a product met its sales goals or the ROI from a recent campaign.
Answer
D. ii
69
Which among the four are Out-Of-Home advertising ? (i) News papers (ii) Transit ads (iii) Magazines (iv) Hoardings
Answer
A. ii and iv
70
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Personal Selling ?
Answer
B. One-Way Communication
71
Which of the following best explains how digital information asymmetry has changed consumer decision-making ?
Answer
C. Consumers actively reduce perceived risk through peer-generated content
72
When evaluating international markets, consider the following statements : I. Market size alone is suļ¬cient to judge market attractiveness. II. Market growth rate reļ¬ects future revenue potential. III. Institutional quality aļ¬ects cost of doing business. IV. Cultural similarity guarantees faster market penetration. Which of the above statements are correct ?
Answer
A. II and III only
73
Which metric in Google Analytics is most appropriate to evaluate user engagement on a landing page ?
Answer
B. Bounce Rate
74
Which entry mode oļ¬ers maximum control but highest risk ?
Answer
D. Wholly owned subsidiary
75
Content marketing contributes to brand equity primarily because it :
Answer
C. Enhances perceived brand credibility and trust
76
Which characteristic is typical of emerging markets ?
Answer
C. High growth potential with institutional voids
77
Regarding search engine optimisation : I. On-page SEO inļ¬uences crawlability and relevance. II. Backlinks act as indicators of content authority. III. Search engine algorithms ignore user behaviour metrics. IV. SEO outcomes are inļ¬uenced by both technical and content factors. Which of the above are correct ?
Answer
A. I, II and IV only
78
A global brand is most vulnerable to negative country-of-origin eļ¬ects when :
Answer
C. Perceived purchase risk is high
79
Which feature uniquely diļ¬erentiates mobile marketing from desktop- based digital marketing ?
Answer
B. Geo-location targeting
80
Which of the following applications best illustrates machine learning in digital marketing ?
Answer
B. Predictive product recommendations systems
81
Which model most accurately represents platform-based e-commerce ?
Answer
C. Marketplace intermediary model
82
In search advertising, Quality Score primarily aļ¬ects :
Answer
B. Ad placement and cost per click
83
Consider the following statements : Statement I : Licensing reduces capital investment and risk. Statement II : Licensing ensures strong control over brand execution. Which is correct ?
Answer
A. Only Statement I
84
Which application best reļ¬ects predictive analytics using AI ?
Answer
B. Recommendation engines
85
Regarding global product strategies : I. Standardisation reduces cost through economies of scale. II. Adaptation improves local relevance. III. Modular design allows partial adaptation. IV. Adaptation always improves proļ¬tability. Which of the above are correct ?
Answer
A. I, II and III only
86
Country-of-origin eļ¬ects are strongest for :
Answer
C. High-involvement, high-risk products
87
Country image inļ¬uences consumer behaviour because : I. It serves as a quality cue. II. It reduces perceived purchase risk. III. It Substitutes brand equity. IV. It aļ¬ects brand evaluation. Which are correct ?
Answer
A. I, II and IV only
88
With respect to social media KPIs : I. Reach measures potential exposure. II. Engagement rate reļ¬ects interaction intensity. III. Click-through rate measures brand loyalty. IV. KPIs should align with campaign objectives. Which of the above are correct ?
Answer
A. I, II and IV only
89
Which market entry mode involves lowest resource commitment and lowest control ?
Answer
C. Licensing
90
A ļ¬rm prefers low political risk, high control and long-term commitment. Which strategy aligns best ?
Answer
D. Wholly owned subsidiary in stable economies
91
Senior management reviews a strategic plan that emphasises revenue growth and proļ¬tability metrics, but gives little attention to customer experience or employee capability development. This emphasis MOST clearly reļ¬ects which limitation of strategic planning ?
Answer
C. Narrow deļ¬nition of strategic performance
92
Management proposes backward integration after noticing sharp increases in input prices and growing dependence on a few dominant suppliers. Which competitive force is this decision PRIMARILY intended to address ?
Answer
C. Bargaining power of suppliers
93
All but one of the following belong to the original Balanced Scorecard perspectives proposed by Kaplan and Norton. Identify the exception.
Answer
D. Regulatory Compliance
94
Despite operating under identical market conditions and using the same technology, one ļ¬rm consistently outperforms its competitor due to superior internal coordination and routines. Which explanation MOST convincingly accounts for this outcome ?
Answer
C. Organisational capabilities create performance diļ¬erences
95
A ļ¬rm considers combining with a competitor at the same level of the value chain. However, concerns about post-merger integration, regulatory approval and synergy realisation make full acquisition risky. Under which condition would a joint venture be the MORE appropriate governance choice ?
Answer
A. Horizontal integration
96
While an established ļ¬rm concentrates on protecting its existing customer base, a smaller rival targets overlooked customer segments with tailored oļ¬erings. Which strategic interpretation BEST explains the challenger's approach ?
Answer
B. Use of a focused or niche diļ¬erentiation strategy
97
Although marketing expenditure has increased, the cost of acquiring each new customer has risen rather than fallen. Which type of marketing control would BEST help management evaluate this issue ?
Answer
C. Eļ¬ciency control
98
A ļ¬rm achieves its annual sales and proļ¬t targets, yet observes a steady increase in marketing expenses relative to sales. Which control approach should management rely on to address this concern MOST eļ¬ectively ?
Answer
D. Annual plan control supported by eļ¬ciency control
99
Despite consistently achieving planned targets, a ļ¬rm's brand relevance and long-term customer engagement show signs of erosion. Which strategic control judgement is MOST appropriate ?
Answer
C. The ļ¬rm's strategy may no longer align with its environment
100
Management suspects that the ļ¬rm's marketing strategy may no longer be aligned with market realities and wants a comprehensive, independent evaluation. Which situation JUSTIFIES initiating a marketing audit ?
Answer
C. Persistent strategic misalignment with market conditions
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