| Post Name | Marketing Manager (Fertilizer) |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala State Co- Operative Marketing Federation Ltd |
| Question Paper Code | 110/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 373/2025 |
| Date of Test | 2 June 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which cooperative principle was added by the International Cooperative Alliance in 1995?
Answer
C. Concern for community
2
The surplus of a cooperative society is generally distributed as
Answer
B. Patronage dividend
3
The Karve Committee is associated with
Answer
C. Small-scale and village industries
4
The founders of modern cooperation are known as:
Answer
B. Rochdale Pioneers
5
Who appoints auditors in cooperative societies?
Answer
B. Government authority
6
Cooperative audit ensures:
Answer
A. Accountability
7
The scope of cooperative audit is:
Answer
B. Wide and comprehensive
8
The administrative head of cooperative audit system is:
Answer
B. Registrar
9
Audit fee is usually calculated on the basis of:
Answer
B. Turnover or working capital
10
Which committee is associated with cooperative credit reforms in India?
Answer
C. Vaidyanathan Committee
11
The head of the Co-operative Department at the State level in Kerala is the
Answer
B. Registrar or Co-operative Societies
12
The oļ¬cer responsible for supervision of societies at the Taluk level is the:
Answer
B. Assistant Registrar
13
Functional Registrars are appointed mainly for:
Answer
C. Sector-speciļ¬c co-operative administration
14
Separation of administration from audit mainly helps to:
Answer
C. Ensure independent audit
15
Which Oļ¬cer heads the General Wing at the district level?
Answer
D. Joint Registrar (General)
16
The supreme authority of a co-operative society is the:
Answer
A. General Body
17
The executive body responsible for day-to-day administration of a co- operative society is the:
Answer
B. Management Committee
18
Internal rules framed for the management of a co-operative society are called:
Answer
A. By-laws
19
Which of the following is a right of a member of a co-operative society?
Answer
B. Right to vote
20
Co-operative accounting mainly emphasizes:
Answer
D. Service to members
21
What is the process of legally closing a co-operative society called?
Answer
B. Winding up
22
Who is responsible for conducting the liquidation process of a co- operative society?
Answer
C. Liquidator
23
Which of the following is associated with the ļ¬nal termination of a co- operative society?
Answer
B. Dissolution
24
What happens to the records of a society after winding up?
Answer
C. They are disposed of according to rules
25
Cancellation of registration occurs after:
Answer
C. Dissolution
26
What does PACS stand for?
Answer
A. Primary Agricultural Credit Society
27
Which institution supports agricultural and rural development in India?
Answer
C. NABARD
28
Which of the following is a co-operative sector in Kerala?
Answer
A. Fishery cooperatives
29
Which cooperative institution was formed by merging district co- operative banks in Kerala?
Answer
B. Kerala Bank
30
Which among the following is related to industrial co-operatives?
Answer
A. Coir
31
Which of the following correctly explains the historical sequence of cooperative legislation in Kerala?
Answer
C. Cochin Act Travancore-Cochin Act Kerala Cooperative Societies Act
32
The principle of "limited liability" under cooperative legislation implies that:
Answer
B. Liability is restricted to the value of shares subscribed
33
The "One member, One vote" principle signiļ¬es:
Answer
C. Equality in decision-making irrespective of capital contribution
34
The enactment of the Kerala Cooperative Societies Act, 1969 mainly represented an eļ¬ort toward:
Answer
C. Establishment of a uniform and integrated cooperative legal framework throughout Kerala
35
Which among the following was NOT generally a feature of the Travancore-Cochin Cooperative Societies Act?
Answer
C. Elimination of audits
36
The primary objective of the Brahm Prakash committee Model Co- operative Societies Act was to:
Answer
C. Provide genuine autonomy and democratic character to cooperatives
37
Arrange the following according to their year of establishment: i. Brahm Prakash Committee ii. Maclagan Committee iii. Royal Commission on Agriculture iv. Vaidyanathan Committee
Answer
A. ii, iii, i, iv
38
Which of the following best explains the price stabilisation role of NAFED?
Answer
C. Procuring when prices fall and releasing stock during shortages
39
Krishak Bharati Cooperative Limited (KRIBHCO) derives its legal status primarily because it is registered under the:
Answer
C. Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, allowing cooperative operations across multiple states in India
40
Which among the following is the apex development ļ¬nancial institution in India that promotes agriculture, rural development and rural prosperity through institutional credit, reļ¬nance assistance, developmental programmes and policy support?
Answer
D. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
41
The Labour Exchange movement in England primarily aimed at:
Answer
B. Exchange of goods based on labour value
42
Which principle was strongly emphasized in Raiļ¬eisen Societies?
Answer
D. Self-help and mutual aid
43
Assertion (A) : The Rochdale Pioneers are considered the founders of the modern cooperative movement. Reason (R) : The Rochdale Pioneers established rural agricultural credit cooperatives in Germany.
Answer
C. (A) is True, (R) is False
44
Which of the following statements regarding the Russian Cooperative movement are correct? i. Agricultural production cooperatives were an important feature of the movement. ii. Consumer cooperatives formed a part of the movement. iii. Joint agricultural production existed within the movement. iv. The movement was limited only to Rochdale-style retail federations.
Answer
A. i, ii and iii only
45
Which of the following statements regarding Cooperative Wholesale Society (CWS) are correct? i. It supplied goods in bulk to retail cooperative societies. ii. It strengthened the consumer cooperative movement. iii. It functioned as a wholesale federation serving retail cooperative societies. iv. It was established primarily to provide agricultural credit to members.
Answer
A. i, ii and iii only
46
Consider the following statements regarding Hermann Schulze- Delitzsch: i. He organized credit cooperatives primarily for urban artisans and small traders. ii. His model emphasized the principle of unlimited liability and long-term loans. iii. He is historically associated with the development of rural agricultural credit societies. iv. He played a foundational role in the German Cooperative movement.
Answer
C. i and iv only
47
Which of the following are associated with Japanese Cooperative Movement? i. Agricultural Cooperative Associations ii. Fisheries Cooperative Associations iii. Consumer Cooperatives iv. Cooperative Unions
Answer
D. i, ii, iii and iv
48
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
Answer
A. Rochdale Pioneers encouraged credit sales
49
Which of the following are features of Danish Cooperative Movement? i. Dairy Cooperatives ii. Cooperative Bacon Factories iii. Cooperative Poultry Societies iv. Urban credit unions
Answer
C. i, ii and iii only
50
Which of the following statements regarding Robert Owen are correct? i. He believed that environment inļ¬uences character. ii. He promoted cooperative colonies. iii. He advocated cash trading as a fundamental cooperative principle. iv. He formulated the principle of democratic member control in cooperatives.
Answer
A. i and ii only
51
Assertion (A) : Delegation reduces the workload of superiors and facilitates managerial eļ¬ciency. Reason (R) : In delegation, accountability is transferred completely from the superior to the subordinate.
Answer
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
52
Consider the following statements regarding Planning in management: i. Planning precedes all other managerial functions. ii. Planning eliminates uncertainty completely in organizational operations. iii. Planning provides standards against which actual performance can be measured. iv. Strategic planning is generally concerned with short-time operational activities.
Answer
A. i and iii only
53
Which of the following best distinguishes line authority from staļ¬ authority in an organization?
Answer
C. Line authority involves direct command over subordinates for achieving organizational objectives
54
Consider the following statements regarding Types of Plans in management: i. Policies provide broad guidelines for managerial decision-making. ii. Procedures specify the exact sequence of actions to be followed in a situation. iii. Budgets are qualitative expressions of organizational objectives. iv. Programmes are generally prepared for repetitive organizational activities.
Answer
A. i and ii only
55
Assertion (A) : Decentralisation promotes faster decision-making at lower managerial levels. Reason (R) : Decentralisation completely eliminates the need for top-level managerial control in organizations.
Answer
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
56
Consider the following statements regarding Control Techniques in management: i. Budgetary control compares actual performance with predetermined standards. ii. Management by Exception focuses managerial attention on signiļ¬cant deviations. iii. Break-even analysis is primarily used to measure employee satisfaction levels. iv. Internal audit is a technique used for evaluating the eļ¬ectiveness of organizational controls.
Answer
A. i, ii and iv only
57
Consider the following statements regarding Directing in management: i. Directing initiates action toward the achievement of organizational objectives. ii. Motivation, supervision and leadership are important elements of directing. iii. Directing is concerned exclusively with top-level management activities. iv. Eļ¬ective directing requires good communication within the organization.
Answer
A. i, ii and iv only
58
Assertion (A) : Feedforward control attempts to detect deviations before actual performance occurs. Reason (R) : Feedforward control is primarily corrective in nature and operates only after deviations have occured.
Answer
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
59
Consider the following statements regarding Management in the context of Globalisation: i. Globalisation increases the need for managers to understand cross-cultural diļ¬erences. ii. Globalisation reduces competitive pressure on domestic ļ¬rms. iii. Technological advancement has accelerated the process of globalisation. iv. Globalisation requires organizations to adapt management practices to international environments.
Answer
A. i, iii and iv only
60
During an economic downturn, a company freezes non-essential recruitment, renegotiates supplier contracts, increases operational eļ¬ciency and focuses on retaining core customers rather than rapid expansion. Which managerial approach is MOST evident in the above situation?
Answer
B. Crisis-oriented cost and resource optimization
61
Which of the following statements are correct regarding organising marketing department? i. Functional specialisation improves eļ¬ciency. ii. Product management is suitable for diversiļ¬ed product lines. iii. Geographic organisation completely removes co-ordination problems.
Answer
A. i and ii only
62
Who introduced the concept of "Marketing Myopia"?
Answer
B. Theodore Levitt
63
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Strategic Control?
Answer
D. Concentration only on routine sales reports
64
Assertion (A) : Marketing Concept and Selling Concept are identical. Reason (R) : Both focus mainly on maximising sales through promotion.
Answer
C. (A) is false but (R) is true
65
Which control technique evaluates whether a company is pursuing the best marketing opportunities?
Answer
B. Strategic control
66
Which marketing concept is most likely to emphasize "ļ¬nd wants and ļ¬ll them"?
Answer
D. Marketing concept
67
Assertion (A) : Marketing contributes to economic development. Reason (R) : Marketing increases production and employment opportunities.
Answer
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
68
Which of the following best explains the importance of marketing?
Answer
B. It bridges the gap between producers and consumers
69
Which utility is created by transportation?
Answer
C. Place utility
70
Match the following: List I List II i. Strategic Control - a. Production wise proļ¬t ii. Annual Plan Control - b. Marketing Eļ¬ectiveness iii. Proļ¬tability Control - c. Sales Performance iv. Marketing Audit - d. Systematic Examination
Answer
A. i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
71
Which of the following is the correct sequence in the consumer buying process?
Answer
B. Need recognition Information search Evaluation of alternatives Purchase decision Post-purchase behaviour
72
Match the following regarding buying roles: List I List II i. Initiator a. Person who uses the product ii. Inļ¬uencer b. Person who suggests purchase iii. Buyer c. Person who gives opinion iv. User d. Person who actually purchases
Answer
A. i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
73
Choose the correct statement regarding consumer and business markets: i. Consumer markets involve purchase for personal use. ii. Business markets involve purchase for production or resale. iii. Business buyers are less rational than consumer buyers. iv. Consumer buying decisions are inļ¬uenced by psychological factors.
Answer
A. i, ii and iv only
74
Match the following regarding market targeting strategies: List I List II i. Undiļ¬erentiated a. Diļ¬erent marketing mix for diļ¬erent marketing segments ii. Diļ¬erentiated marketing b. Focusing on one segment iii. Concentrated marketing c. Same marketing mix for entire market iv. Niche marketing d. Serving a small specialised segment
Answer
A. i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
75
Which of the following is NOT a pattern of market segmentation?
Answer
B. Geographic segmentation
76
Which of the following statements best distinguishes demand estimation from sales forecasting?
Answer
B. Demand estimation measures market potential, whereas sales forecasting predicts expected company sales
77
A company positions its toothpaste as "recommended by dentists for sensitive teeth". This is primarily an example of positioning based on:
Answer
C. Beneļ¬t oļ¬ered
78
A smartphone company launches: a premium model for executives, a gaming model for youth and a budget model for students. This strategy reļ¬ects:
Answer
C. Diļ¬erentiated targeting
79
In positioning analysis, perceptual mapping is mainly used to:
Answer
B. Compare consumer perceptions of competing brands
80
Choose the correct statements regarding segmentation and positioning: i. Eļ¬ective segmentation requires segments to be measurable and accessible. ii. Positioning aims at inļ¬uencing consumer perception. iii. Homogeneous preference indicates widely scattered consumer preferences. iv. Diļ¬used preferences create opportunities for product diļ¬erentiation.
Answer
A. i, ii and iv only
81
What is the most appropriate strategic focus during the growth stage, when applying the product life cycle (PLC) concept as described by Kotler and Keller?
Answer
A. Building Brand preference and increasing Market share as demand expands
82
What does DEPTH of a product mix refer to?
Answer
B. Number of versions oļ¬ered of each product in a line
83
A company which uses diļ¬erent package sizes for diļ¬erent customer segments is applying the concept of:
Answer
D. Product Diļ¬erentiation
84
A product line refers to:
Answer
B. A group of closely related products that perform similar functions
85
The correct sequence of new product development stages is:
Answer
C. Idea generation Concept testing Business analysis Test marketing Commercialization
86
The 7Ps of services marketing include all EXCEPT:
Answer
A. Packaging
87
Consumer products bought frequently with minimum eļ¬ort are called:
Answer
B. Convenience products
88
Which of the following is NOT a component of brand equity?
Answer
D. Brand packaging
89
During the Introduction stage of PLC, a marketer typically experiences:
Answer
A. Low sales, high promotion costs and no/low proļ¬ts
90
A company sets an initial goal for its new product line: "Recover the development costs within one and a half years, while maintaining a premium image in Tier-1 cities" Which of the following Best describes the company's primary pricing objective?
Answer
C. Cost recovery with image-building objective
91
Which of the following 4 P's of marketing mix is concerned with the selection of distribution channel?
Answer
D. Place
92
In a physical distribution system, the primary objective is to
Answer
B. Move goods from the point of production to consumption
93
Marketing mix elements i.e. Product, Price, Promotion and Place are called
Answer
B. Controllable Variables
94
Retail Marketing focuses mainly on
Answer
C. Final Consumers
95
The ļ¬rst object of any advertisement is to
Answer
A. Communicate eļ¬ectively
96
Which intermediary does not take title of goods?
Answer
C. Agent
97
Integrated Marketing Communications (IMC) means:
Answer
B. Coordinating all promotional tools to deliver a consistent message
98
Advertising, sales promotion, public relation and publicity are the type of
Answer
C. Non-Personal selling
99
Which of the following is a form of direct marketing?
Answer
B. Catalog marketing
100
Which of the following is not true?
Answer
C. Publicity is of paid form
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