| Post Name | Materials Manager - Kerala State cooperative Coir Marketing Federation Ltd |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 163/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 529/2022 |
| Date of Test | 20 November 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The Econometric model of forecasting in management is
Answer
B. Regression analysis
2
Which of the following is not correct?
Answer
B. N-W Corner rule - Assignment problem
3
Calculate the total wage earned by the worker using Halsey plan : Minimum Guaranteed wage - Rs. 200/hour Time allowed for the job - 10 hours Time taken by the employee - 8 hours Percentage bonus is 50%
Answer
C. Rs. 1,800
4
An aisle in a plant layout is
Answer
A. Area ear marked for traffic inside the shop
5
C-Chart generally follows
Answer
C. Poisson distribution
6
If the lower control limit has a negative value in P-chart, it is taken as
Answer
A. Zero
7
The basic procedure for method study doesnot include
Answer
D. Eliminate
8
Observed time of an element is 0.30 minute, pace rating is 75% and the sum of all secondary adjustment for job complexity is 30%. The normal time is
Answer
C. 0.29 minutes
9
For a project network, optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic time are 8, 10 and 14 respectively. The expected time (tE) is
Answer
D. 10.3
10
If the unit ordering cost is thrice the initial, EOQ will change to
Answer
B. 1.73 times
11
The solid solution of carbon in -iron is known as
Answer
A. Austenite
12
Which one of the following statements about heat treatment is correct? (i) Heat treatment softens the metal (ii) Heat treatment refines the grain structure (iii) Heat treatment relieves internal stresses (iv) Heat treatment decreases the wear resistance
Answer
B. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
13
The property of a metal, when it is subjected to high temperature for a long period of time is known as
Answer
D. Creep
14
Auto collimator is used for measuring
Answer
B. Angular difference
15
Oxidising flame in gas welding is used for welding
Answer
A. Brass and Bronze
16
Consider the following statements : (i) Cutting speed affects the tool life (ii) Tool geometry does not affect the tool life (iii) Feed and depth of cut affects the tool life Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer
B. (i) and (iii) only
17
The Lathe accessory which is used for holding bored parts for machining their outside surface on lathe is
Answer
C. Mandrel
18
A milling operation in which a pair of side milling cutters is used for machining two parallel vertical surface of a workpiece simultaneously is known as
Answer
B. Straddle milling
19
Consider the following operations : (i) Boring (ii) Counter sinking (iii) Broaching (iv) Tapping Which of the operations given above can be performed on a drilling machine?
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
20
Consider the following systems : (i) Tool systems (ii) Planning systems (iii) Transporting systems (iv) Handling systems Which of the systems given above is/are the component of flexible manufacturing systems
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
21
In an inverted U tube manometer, the density of the manometric fluid in comparison with the density of fluid whose pressure difference is to be found out
Answer
A. is lighter
22
In a hydraulic jack the pistons have an area of and . The specific gravity of hydraulic oil used is 0.87. If a car weighing 1000 kg is to be lifted up find out the force to be applied
Answer
B. 19.6 N
23
The velocity along the centreline of a nozzle of length L is given by u = 2t(1 − x/(2L))². Where u is the velocity in m/s, t is time in seconds and x is the distance in meters from the nozzle inlet. If the length of nozzle is 0.5 m, the acceleration when t = 1 second and x = 0.1 is
Answer
C. −4.21 m/s²
24
The two-dimensional velocity field is given by ÷ . The vorticity is
Answer
C. (-2y)k
25
A pitot-static tube records
Answer
B. Static pressure and stagnation pressure
26
A jet of water 60 mm diameter and velocity 20 m/s strikes a symmetrically curved fixed vane at the centre. After impingement the jet gets deflected through 150º by the vane. Find the force excited by the jet on the vane if the surface of the vane is smooth
Answer
A. 2110 N
27
A Pelton wheel is designed to operate under a head of 625 m and develop 6 MW while running at 200 rpm. The unit speed of the turbine is
Answer
B. 8
28
Following are different statements related to draft tube. Which among them is/are correct? (i) It decreases the pressure at the runner exit to a value less than atmosphere pressure (ii) It recovers a portion of exit kinetic energy to tail race (iii) It increases the pressure at the runner exit to prevent recirculation (iv) It does not recover any portion of exit kinetic energy
Answer
B. Both (i) and (ii)
29
A centrifugal pump is designed to discharge 0.25 m³/s against a head of 16 m while running at 900 rpm. The specific speed of the pump is
Answer
D. 56.25
30
A double acting reciprocating pump runs at 120 rpm. The suction pipe has a diameter of 100 mm and has an air vessel fitted to its suction side. The diameter of cylinder and stroke are 150 mm and 450 mm respectively. If piston is driven with Simple Harmonic Motion, the rate of flow into the air vessel when the crank makes 60° with the inner dead centre is
Answer
A. 0.011 m³/s
31
According to Lami's Theorem
Answer
D. If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two
32
A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 600 MPa in one plane accompanied by simple shear stress of 400 MPa. The maximum shear stress will be
Answer
B. 500 MPa
33
A column of length 'L' with one end fixed and other end hinged may be considered equivalent to a column of length __________ with both ends hinged.
Answer
C. L/√2
34
The slope of the stress-strain curve in the elastic deformation region is
Answer
A. Elastic modulus
35
A cantilever is subjected to point load at the free end. The maximum tensile form of bending stress on the beam acts at
Answer
A. Top most point of the beam at the fixed end
36
Which among the following materials does not exhibit distinct endurance limit?
Answer
D. Aluminium
37
Two mating spur gears have 30 and 90 teeth respectively. The pinon rotates at 900 rpm and transmit torque of 15 Nm. The torque transmitted by gear is
Answer
C. 45 Nm
38
A screw thread is specified by
Answer
B. Nominal diameter
39
The longitudinal joint in boilers is used to get the required
Answer
C. Diameter of the boiler
40
Bull engine is an inversion of
Answer
A. Single slider crank chain
41
Which of the following performance test is conducted on I.C. engine for estimating indicated power of a Multi-cylinder engines?
Answer
A. Retardation test
42
Which of the following does not related to SI engines?
Answer
C. Fuel injector
43
If the reflectivity and transmissivity of a body is zero, then it is referred as
Answer
A. Black body
44
Which of the following engine performance parameter is the criterion of economic power production?
Answer
B. Specific fuel consumption
45
The ratio of brake power to indicated power of an I.C. engine is
Answer
D. Mechanical efficiency
46
The ratio of momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity is
Answer
A. Prandtl number
47
Lumpted system analysis is reasonably applicable when the value of Biot number is less than
Answer
A. 0.1
48
Which of the following is true if the value of Nusselt Number is unity?
Answer
A. Heat transfer is through conduction only
49
Which of the following heat transfer process involve the internal heat generation?
Answer
D. All the above
50
Value of relative humidity for the saturated air is
Answer
B. 100%
51
Find the resistance of the coil which takes a current of 5<60° A (lag) from the 100V, 50 Hz supply.
Answer
B. 10Ω
52
For a series RLC circuit, the power factor at the lower half power frequency is
Answer
D. 0.707 leading
53
If the voltage across the capacitor in the circuit shown is (2 − e^(-2t)) V, the source voltage v_a in volts is
Answer
A. 5
54
Consider the portion of a circuit shown in figure with 80W power loss in 5Ω resistance, then the power loss in resistance is
Answer
A. 6W
55
The power supplied by 50V source is
Answer
C. 500W
56
The circuit is in steady state at switch position 1. The switch is moved to position 2 at t = 0. The current i(t) in the circuit at t = 0 + is
Answer
B. 0.8A
57
The r.m.s. value of the current i(t) in the circuit shown below is
Answer
A. √2A
58
For the network shown below, the Thevenin equivalent voltage, is
Answer
D. 20V
59
If a purely resistive load has to be connected to an AC voltage source with internal impedance of (8+j6)Ω in order to extract maximum power out of the source, the value of load resistance in Ω should be
Answer
C. 10
60
For the circuit given and . The value of is
Answer
B. 2cos(t)
61
The purpose of equalizer rings in a lap winding DC machine is to
Answer
D. Prevent the flow of circulating current through brushes
62
If W_i is the iron loss and W_c is the copper loss of a transformer, the maximum efficiency of the transformer occurs at
Answer
A. W_i = W_c
63
A shunt generator delivers 500 A at 250 V and the resistance of shunt field and armature are 50 ohm and 0.01 ohm respectively. The generated emf is
Answer
C. 255.05 V
64
A 20 KVA, 2000/200V single phase transformer has core loss of 300 W and copper loss of 400 W at full load. The total losses at half full load will be
Answer
A. 400 W
65
A 4 pole three phase induction motor operates from 440 V, 50 Hz supply. At 4% slip, the speed of the motor is
Answer
C. 1440 rpm
66
The rotor resistance and leakage reactance of an induction motor is R₂ and X₂ respectively. If the stator impedance is neglected, the maximum torque of an induction motor occurs at a slip of
Answer
A. Slip = R₂/X₂
67
During blocked rotor test on induction motor, the power drawn by the motor is mainly for
Answer
B. Copper loss
68
A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous condenser at
Answer
A. Over excited
69
Prime mover for a salient pole synchronous generator is
Answer
B. Hydro turbine
70
The maximum power output of a synchronous generator having synchronous reactance of X, generated emf E and terminal voltage V is
Answer
A. EV/X
71
Identify the true statement from the following with respect to distance relays
Answer
B. Impedance relay is more appropriate for protection of medium transmission lines
72
An IDMT relay has a current setting of 150%. The relay is connected in the circuit through a CT having ratio 400/5. If the fault current in relay coil is 4800, Obtain the plug setting multiplier
Answer
C. 8
73
The synchronous reactance of a 4000 MVA, 10 kV synchronous generator is 0.1 p.u. Determine the synchronous reactance on the base values of 1000 MVA, 20 kV.
Answer
B. 6.25 x p.u.
74
Consider the following statements (1) Ferranti effect on long overhead lines is experienced when it is at full load at unity power factor (2) Bundled conductors are employed to improve the mechanical stability of the transmission line (3) Skin effect lessens the effective area of cross-section of the conductor and hence increases its effective resistance (4) The proximity effect is lesser for stranded conductors than solid conductors Which of the statements are correct?
Answer
C. 3 and 4
75
Power loss due to corona does not depend on
Answer
B. Height of the conductor
76
In symmetrical components, the operator 'a' rotates the vector through _____________ in the __________ direction.
Answer
D. 120°, anti-clockwise
77
The various power system faults are 1. Single Line to Ground fault (LG) 2. Line to Line fault (LL) 3. Double line to Ground fault (LLG) and 4. Three phase faults (LLL/LLLG) If these faults are arranged in the order of increasing severity is
Answer
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
78
If A represents value of steady state stability limit and B represents value of transient stability limit, which one of the following expression is true?
Answer
A. A > B
79
A three phase OHT line has its conductors horizontally spaced with spacing equal to d between adjacent conductors. If the conductors of the line are re-arranged to form an equilateral triangle of sides equal to d; then
Answer
C. Average capacitance will increase but the average inductance will decrease
80
In a three unit insulator, the voltage stress across at the bottom most unit is found to be 33.33 kV. Given that the string efficiency is 66.66%. Evaluate the total voltage across the whole unit.
Answer
D. 66.66 kV
81
The maximum percentage error in the sum of two voltage measurements when V₁ = 75 V ±1% and V₂ = 50 V ±5% is
Answer
B. 2.6%
82
A moving coil of a meter has 200 turns, and a length and depth of 10 mm and 20 mm respectively. It is positioned in a uniform radial flux density of 300 mT. The coil carries a current of 60 mA. The torque on the coil is
Answer
C. 720 μNm
83
The inductance of a certain moving iron ammeter is expressed as . The control spring torque is Nm/radian. The deflection in radians for a current of 3A is
Answer
A. 5.33
84
Ratio of readings of two wattmeter connected to measure power in a balanced 3-phase load is 2:1 and the load is inductive. The power factor of load is
Answer
C. 0.866 lag
85
Assertion (A) : It is always desirable to take the reading of an indicating instrument very close to the full scale reading Reason (R) : Accuracy of an indicating instrument is maximum at the full scale deflection and error increases as reading comes closer to the beginning of the scale
Answer
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
86
The coil of a moving iron instrument has a resistance of 500 ohm and inductance of 1H. It reads 200 V when a 200 V DC is applied. It series resistance is 1000 ohms its reading when fed by 200 V, 50 Hz AC will almost be
Answer
A. 196 V
87
Assertion (A) : A low power factor wattmeter has special constructional features to ensure accurate measurement Reason (R) : Extension of wattmeter range in DC circuit can be easily done by using current and potential transformer
Answer
A. A is true but R is false
88
To the 'y' input of a CRO a signal defined by 10sin(100t) is applied. To the 'x' input a signal 10cos(100t) is fed. The gain for both x-channel and y-channel is the same. The screen shows
Answer
B. Circle
89
The meter constant of a single phase 240V induction watt-hour meter is 800 revolutions per KWh. The speed in rpm of the meter disc for a current of 20 Amperes and 0.8 p.f. lagging will be
Answer
D. 51.2
90
Two holes are drilled at the opposite sides of the spindle in the disc of energy meter to
Answer
D. eliminate creeping at no load
91
What type of transudcer is an LVDT?
Answer
C. Inductive
92
A LVDT has a stroke length of ±100mm and produces a resolution of 25mV/mm when moved. Determine the output voltage when the core is moved 120 mm from its null position.
Answer
A. 3.0 V
93
The instrument which is used to measure the specific gravity to battery electrolyte?
Answer
B. Hydrometer
94
Which transducer is used for measurement of magnetic field?
Answer
D. Hall effect
95
A trickle charger for a storage battery assists in
Answer
D. Keep it fresh and fully charged
96
As per recommendation of ISI the maximum load that can be connected in one sub circuit is
Answer
A. 800 watts
97
What is the minimum required length of pipe in a pipe electrode earthing system?
Answer
D. 2.5m
98
The luminous intensity of 200 W unidirectional bulb is 150 candela. The total luminous flux emitted from the bulb is
Answer
A. 600 lumen
99
What is the average illumination in a room with an area of illuminated by four numbers of 100-W lamps with a luminous efficiency of 80 lumens/W and a coefficient of utilization of 0.65?
Answer
C. 832 lux
100
Which lamp emits nearly monochromatic light
Answer
A. Sodium vapour lamp
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.