| Post Name | Media Maker |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala Drugs Control |
| Question Paper Code | 036/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 100/2025 |
| Date of Test | 26 February 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Elements with valence electrons occupying orbitals with the same angular momentum quantum numbers have similarities which diminish in the order ?
Answer
A. f>d>s>p
2
Which among the following electronic configuration(s) is / are correct ? i. Cu-3d10 4s1 ii. Cr-3d5 4s1 iii. Pd-4d10 5s0
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
3
Which among the following is / are incorrect about covalent character of the bonding ? i. AlN > MgO > NaF ii. NaF > MgO > AlN iii. KF > NaF > LiF
Answer
C. Only ii and iii
4
The correct structure of diborane may be described with
Answer
A. Four 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-2e bonds
5
The number of bond pairs and lone pairs in triiodide ion to give a linear shape for the molecule are respectively
Answer
A. 2 and 3
6
Identify the correct order of molecules in terms of bond order.
Answer
B. O22- < O2- < O2 < O2+
7
Which of the following complexes has / have unequal M-L bond lengths ? i. [Mn(H2O)6]2+ ii. [CoF6]3- iii. [FeF6]3- iv. [Cu(H2O)6]2+
Answer
C. Only ii and iv
8
Exchange energies for p3 and p4 electronic configurations are
Answer
B. 3K and 3K
9
Which among the following is not a magic number ?
Answer
C. 54
10
Which among the following is not true ?
Answer
B. Magnetic moments of [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [MnCl4]2- differ considerably
11
Cellulose is a polymer of
Answer
C. -D-glucose
12
Cyclic polymerisation of ethyne gives
Answer
A. Benzene
13
Which of the following compound is anti-aromatic ?
Answer
C. Cyclobutadiene
14
Which one of the following exists as zwitterion at neutral pH ?
Answer
A. Glycine
15
Tertiary alcohols do not undergo oxidation easily because
Answer
B. They lack -hydrogen
16
Squalene is a
Answer
D. Triterpene
17
At isoelectric point, an amino acid has
Answer
D. Zero net charge
18
Pernicious anaemia is caused by deficiency of
Answer
B. Vitamin B12
19
Which of the following correctly represents the relationship between -D-glucose and -D-glucose ?
Answer
B. Anomers
20
Which drug shows both analgesic and antipyretic properties ?
Answer
A. Paracetamol
21
Which of the following aqueous solution will show maximum vapour pressure at 300K ?
Answer
D. 1 M C12H22O11
22
If water kept in an isolated vessel at -10 C freezes suddenly, the S of the system
Answer
D. Zero
23
The units of rate and rate constant for a certain reaction are same. The order of the reaction is
Answer
A. Zero
24
Gold number of haemoglobin is 0.03. i.e. 100 mL of gold sol require _______ mg haemoglobin so that gold is not coagulated by 10 mL of 10% NaCl solution.
Answer
C. 0.3 mg
25
The smallest interplanar spacing in a crystal which will give n th order bragg reflection is
Answer
A. dₕₖₗ = nλ/2
26
Calculate the pH of a buffer that contains 0.7 M ammonia and 0.7 M ammonium chloride (pKa = 9.248).
Answer
C. 9.248
27
Peaks of scattered intensity is observed when the path of difference would be equal to
Answer
A. λ
28
Which law of thermodynamics establishes the concept of temperature ?
Answer
A. Zeroth law
29
The volume of a given mass of a gas at 27 C, 1 atm pressure is 100 CC. Its volume at 327 C would be
Answer
A. 200 CC
30
Which of the following is not an ideal solute ?
Answer
C. Alcohol + Water
31
The primary standard used for standardising NaOH is
Answer
C. Oxalic acid
32
The indicator used in the titration of a weak acid with a strong base is
Answer
B. Phenolphthalein
33
The indicator used for metal ion - EDTA titration to detect the end point is
Answer
C. Eriochrome black T
34
In following reaction, MnO4-+ pFe2+ + qH+ Mn2+ + pFe3+ + rH2O the value of coefficients p, q and r respectively are
Answer
D. 5, 8, 4
35
According to Beer Lambert Law, the sample path length and its concentration are directly proportional to the
Answer
B. Absorbance of light
36
Which one is an example of a precipitation titration ?
Answer
D. NaCl vs AgNO3
37
The separation of a precipitate from a solution during gravimetric analysis is
Answer
A. Filtration
38
The stationary phase in thin layer chromatography is
Answer
A. Solid
39
The number of moles of solute present in 1 kg of solvent is
Answer
B. Molality
40
Which anion is detected using brown ring test ?
Answer
A. Nitrate
41
Plasmids are
Answer
C. Extra chromosomal DNA
42
Fried egg appearance in culture media is seen in
Answer
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
43
Hospital acquired infections are called
Answer
D. Nosocomial
44
To sterilize antibiotic solution the best method is
Answer
A. Filtration
45
Laminar flow hood uses
Answer
B. HEPA filter
46
Autoclave tape is used as
Answer
A. Chemical indicator
47
Milk is sterilized by
Answer
B. Pasteurization
48
The bacterial motility is best visible under which microscope ?
Answer
A. Dark field
49
Oral thrush is caused by
Answer
D. Candida albicans
50
The concentration of KOH is used in nail preparation is
Answer
D. 20-40%
51
Anaerobic bacteria do not grow in the presence of oxygen because they lack
Answer
A. Catalase enzyme
52
A protein hydrolysate made by incomplete digestion of meat, casein and other protein sources is called as
Answer
C. Peptone
53
Endotoxin is a
Answer
C. Lipopolysaccharide
54
The Voges - Proskauer (VP) test detects which end product of glucose fermentation
Answer
B. Acetoin
55
Toxic shock syndrome is attributed to infection with
Answer
A. Stapylococcus aureus
56
Which among the following structure of bacteria is concerned with respiration ?
Answer
B. Mesosomes
57
Antibiotic solutions and toxins are sterilized by
Answer
C. Filtration
58
Which among the following is copnophilic bacteria ?
Answer
D. Brucella abortus
59
The test used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
Answer
C. Mantoux test
60
Which bacteria cause peptic ulcer ?
Answer
D. Helicobacter pylori
61
Active feeding stage of a protozoan parasite is
Answer
C. Trophozoite
62
In Hepatic amoebiasis, it is not true
Answer
A. Alkaline phosphatase decreses
63
Infective form is an embryonated egg in case of
Answer
C. Trichuris trichiura
64
Example for a cestode is
Answer
D. Echinococcus granulosus
65
Histidine-rich protein 2 (HRP-2) is detected to diagnose
Answer
A. Malaria
66
In TPHA test
Answer
D. All the above
67
A p24 antigen test is used in case of
Answer
C. HIV
68
In ELISA test
Answer
D. All the above
69
Cytopathic effect (CPE) is mainly related with
Answer
C. Viruses
70
Example for a flocculation test
Answer
B. VDRL
71
Cleaning solution used to remove Idoine stains
Answer
B. Nitric acid
72
Photometric method is used to calibrate
Answer
C. TC pipette
73
Normal solution contains
Answer
B. Gram Equivalent wt/litre of solute
74
Qualities of a good deionized water are
Answer
A. Poor conductivity and high resistivity
75
Flouride is a poison for the enzyme
Answer
C. Enolase
76
Quality control chart used to detect the type of error
Answer
D. Wester gard multirule chart
77
Anti coagulant used for blood gas analysis
Answer
D. Heparin
78
Preservative used for 24 hour urine collection for urinary VMA
Answer
A. Hcl
79
Co-enzyme for amino transferases enzyme
Answer
A. Pyridoxal phosphate
80
Schilling test is used for the detection of
Answer
C. Malabsorption of Vit. B12
81
An example of inhibitor of prostatic ACP
Answer
B. L-Tartrate
82
Location agent for sugar chromatography
Answer
C. Diphenylamine
83
Enzyme used as a tumor marker
Answer
C. ACP
84
In Dry Chemistry Analysers the reaction is monitored using
Answer
C. Reflectance Spectrophotometer
85
Example of a protein stain used for electrophoresis
Answer
A. Coomassie Brilliant Blue
86
Which reagent is commonly used in the sickling test ?
Answer
C. Sodium meta bisulphate
87
Haemolysis during blood collection may caused by
Answer
D. Forcing blood through the needle
88
Calcium chloride is added during coagulation testing is to
Answer
B. Neutralize anticoagulant
89
Presence of auer rods in blast cells indicate
Answer
A. Acute myeloid leukaemia
90
Which parameter indicates variation in RBC size ?
Answer
C. RDW
91
Terminal sugar in 'B' antigen is
Answer
B. Galactose
92
Platelet concentrate must contains at least
Answer
C. 5.5 1010 platelets/unit
93
Incomplete washing during coomb's test gives
Answer
A. False negative
94
The binding site for plasmodium vivax is present on RBCs of
Answer
C. Duffy blood group
95
The RARA - PML fusion gene which is characteristic cytogenetic abnormality in acute promyelocytic leukaemia is due to
Answer
B. t (15 ; 17) (q22 ; q21)
96
Metachromatic dyes belong to
Answer
C. Thiazine group
97
For the evaluation of kidney basement membrane PAS stain is combined with the following
Answer
B. Silver stain
98
Colour index of orange G. 6 is
Answer
A. 16230
99
Urine bilirubin is absent in
Answer
C. Haemolytic Jaundice
100
Normal range of CSF sodium is
Answer
A. 135-150 meq/L
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