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Kerala PSC Medical Officer – Kerala Sports and Youth Affairs Previous Question Paper – 129/2023/OL

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Post NameMedical Officer - Kerala Sports and Youth Affairs
Question Paper Code129/2023/OL
Category Code569/2022
Date of Test27 July 2023
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
The anatomical area that can be radiologically visualized by Zanca views is :
Answer
B. Acromioclavicular joint
2
Incidence of rotator cuff tear is highest in
Answer
C. Type III acromion
3
Primary scapular stabilizer muscles include all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Long head of biceps
4
All statements are true EXCEPT :
Answer
C. Jerk test is used to assess posterior instability of shoulder
5
Bucket handle type lesion of superior labrum seen in
Answer
C. Type III SLAP lesion
6
Golfer's elbow is characterized by
Answer
A. Tenderness over medial epicondyle
7
DeQuervain's disease classically affects the
Answer
D. Extensor Pollicis Brevis and Abductor Pollicis Longus
8
Which of the following statements are TRUE (i) Watson test assess scapholunate stability (ii) Finkelstein test detect tenosynovitis of Extensor carpi radialis and Extensor Pollicis Longus (iii) Sulcus sign evaluate inferior glenohumeral joint instability (iv) Neer-Walsh impingement test is for rotator cuff tendinitis
Answer
B. (i), (iii) and (iv)
9
Following statements are true about scapholunate instability EXCEPT :
Answer
B. It is a rare type of wrist ligament injury
10
All are true EXCEPT :
Answer
D. Ulnar-minus variant may be associated
11
Positive Thompson test indicates
Answer
B. Ruptured Achilles tendon
12
All statements about Legg-Calve Perthe's disease are true EXCEPT
Answer
C. Girls are more frequently affected than boys
13
Which of the following statements are TRUE : (i) Lliotibial Band insert distally into Gerdy's tubercle (ii) Lliotibial band is controlled proximally by Gluteus Maximus and Tensor Fascia Lata (iii) Lateral snapping hip syndrome is seen in lliotibial band syndrome (iv) Internal snapping hip is due to iliopsoas tendon rubbing over iliopectineal eminence
Answer
A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
14
Avulsion fracture of lateral tibial plateau
Answer
A. Segond fracture
15
Pain generators in athletic pubalgia
Answer
D. All of the above
16
Following statements are true EXCEPT :
Answer
B. Surgical management is the treatment of choice for ischial avulsion fracture
17
Which of the following statements are TRUE (i) Medial collateral ligament courses from medial femoral condyle to the proximal medial tibia (ii) Anterior cruciate ligament courses from medial wall of the lateral femoral condyle anteromedially to the anterior spine of tibial plateau (iii) Tears in the outer portion of the meniscus have better healing potential (iv) Outer portion of the meniscus is avascular
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
18
All statements about osteochondritis dessicans are true EXCEPT:
Answer
B. Most common site is inferior portion of lateral femoral condyle
19
Abnormal mechanism resulting in improper tracking of patella
Answer
C. Both (1) and (2)
20
Which is the TRUE statement:
Answer
D. All of the above
21
Which of the following statement is/are correct about periodisation? (i) A microcyle last for 1-2 weeks of continuous sessions without any breaks or recovery (ii) A mesocycle lasts for 3-6 weeks (iii) A mesocycle emphasizes on multiple aspects of training (iv) Final phase of a macrocycle is the competition phase
Answer
D. statement (ii) is correct
22
Which of the following statement regarding inadequate recovery, is wrong?
Answer
C. A glutamine to glutamate level more than 3.58 suggest inadequate recovery
23
Which among the following statement is true?
Answer
D. All the above statements are true
24
Regarding the kinetic chain concept, which among the following is false?
Answer
D. Training of various muscle groups than movement forms is more effective in developing the kinetic chain
25
About return to activity after ACL reconstruction for a national level professional football player, which of the following is true?
Answer
A. Cycling can be started after 3 weeks
26
Which of the following is not true regarding swimmers shoulder?
Answer
C. drag swimsuits and swim paddles help reduce the symptoms
27
Regarding running, which of the following statement is wrong?
Answer
C. Contributing factors for runners knee are decreased q angle and ankle and foot valgus
28
A professional fast bowler came to OPD with painful clicking and pain on bowling. Which among the following is not true regarding the condition
Answer
B. External impingement is seen primarily in these patients
29
For Therapeutic use exemption to be granted, which of the below statements need to be followed (i) The athlete experience significant impairment in health, if the drug/method is being withheld (ii) The therapeutic use of drug/method would produce no additional enhancement of performance other than return to normal state of normal health (iii) There is no reasonable therapeutic alternative to the use of drug/method (iv) The necessity for the use of the otherwise prohibited substance or method cannot be a consequence of prior non therapeutic use of any of any substance from the prohibited list.
Answer
A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) need to be followed
30
Which of the following statements about Anabolic steroids are true? (i) Anabolic steroids are used in the treatment of refractory anemia, palliative therapy, osteoporosis and muscle wasting in Anti retroviral therapy patients (ii) Doses taken are 10-40 times the therapeutic dose (iii) Stacking is the use of combination of anabolic steroids (iv) Changes in libido, mood swings, aggression, addiction and suicidal attempts are the psychological effects of anabolic steroids.
Answer
A. All the above statements are true
31
Which among the following statements are true? (i) Balneotherapy is an example of deep heat (ii) Ultrasonic therapy works on non thermal processes like cavitation, shock waves and streaming (iii) The target temperature reduction in cryotherapy is 10-15*C achieved by repeated application (iv) Short wave diathermy can increase the intramuscular temperatures to rise 15*C at a depth of 4-5 cm
Answer
B. Statements (ii) and (iii) are true
32
Which of the following statements are true?
Answer
C. Increased blood pressures and hyper viscosity can lead on to strokes and myocardial infarctions
33
Which among the following statements are not true?
Answer
D. In animal studies, single injection increased muscle size and strength but effect only lasted for 6 months
34
Regarding the physeal fractures in children which among the following is true? (i) Physis is the weakest structure of the bone hence the injury (ii) Of the 6 types of physeal injury, type 1 is the one with best prognosis (iii) Type 5 is found mostly retrospectively once the growth arrest or the angular deformity has occurred (iv) Type II fractures growth arrest is rare
Answer
B. All statements except (iv) are true
35
Which of the following statements are true? (i) The three components of Female Athlete Triad (FAT) is low energy availability with or without eating disorder, menstrual dysregulation and decreased bone mineral density (ii) Indication for IP treatment of an athlete with FAT are <75% of expected body weight, rapid > 15% weightloss, arrhythmia and suicidal ideations. (iii) Athletes who begin intensive training before puberty develop primary amenorrhoea (iv) Normal breast and public development in the absence of menstrual periods suggest gonadal abnormality
Answer
A. All statements are true
36
Which of the following statements are true?
Answer
C. Positive walker and Steinberg sign are seen in marfans syndrome
37
Which of the following statements about long QT syndrome is not true?
Answer
B. Jervell syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder causing Qtc prolongation
38
Which of the following about concussions are false? (i) Concussions are primarily caused by trauma where a functional disturbance in brain is not associated with structural brain damage (ii) Main treatment of concussion is physical and cognitive rest (iii) Children and adolescents take extended resolution periods (iv) Player should be assessed at sideline with sports concussion assessment tool if player has potential features of concussion
Answer
A. All the above statements are true
39
A wheelchair basketball player who also happens to be a tetraplegic person with no comorbidities complained of severe headache and nasal stuffiness since morning. He has distended bladder even after being on a catheter. His BP was found to be 140/90 mm of Hg. What will be the order of management for this patient (i) Recatheterise the patient (ii) Management of BP (iii) Loosening the clothing (iv) Evacuation of bowel (v) Sitting up the patient
Answer
C. (v), (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
40
Which of the following statements about rhabdomolysis is wrong? (i) seen in persons involved in prolonged exertional activity (ii) Severity is based on the symtoms and biochemical values (iii) CPK values >5000 and urine myoglobin/Haemoglobin strongly positive need IV fluid therapy (iv) Recurrent bouts of rhabdomyolysis or severe episodes warrant the evaluation of underlying disease processes, myopathy or enzyme deficiencies
Answer
A. All statements are true
41
Pain caused by a stimulus than does not normally provoke pain
Answer
A. Allodynia
42
Pain induced or caused by primary leison or dyfunction in the central nervous system
Answer
B. Central pain
43
Normal pain nociception is characterised primarily the process of all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Convection
44
In transmission of pain the thin unmyelinated, slow conducting fibres are
Answer
C. C
45
In the physiology of pain, the pain fibres that are myclinated and fast are
Answer
B. A
46
Person associated with gate control theory
Answer
A. Melzack
47
Behavioural treatment approach to chronic pain indudes
Answer
B. Operant behavioural technique
48
One of the primary Assumptions, that underlie a behavioural technique which states, Cognition interacts with emotional and physiologic reactions as well as behaviour is termed as
Answer
A. Cognitive behavioural technique
49
Opioid receptors are all EXCEPT
Answer
A. C
50
Opiod used in pain management turo intrathecal route
Answer
D. Morphine
51
In therapeutic exercises, muscle fibres contain the following metabolic pathway EXCPT
Answer
D. Calcium oxidation
52
A measure of cardiopulmonary fitness of muscle in therapeutic EX is ______ capacity, defined physiologically as the highest of oxygen transport that can be achieved at max physical exertion.
Answer
A. Aerobic capacity with max
53
Physiology of muscle contraction occurs by
Answer
A. sliding filament mechanism
54
Type of muscle fibre which are slow and oxidative
Answer
A. Type 1 fibre
55
Type of muscle fibres which are fast twitch fibres
Answer
B. Type 2
56
In therapeutic exercises the methods of stretching techniques are all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Proprioception
57
A therapeutic Exercises of stretching which includes Hold-Relax, Contract-Relax technique is called
Answer
A. Neuromuscular facilitation
58
The Therapeutic Exercise with brief explosive manocuvres that consist of an eccentric muscle contraction followed immediately by a concentric contraction is termed as
Answer
B. plyometrics
59
Neuro facilitation technique of terapeutic exercise used for central nervous system dysfunction includes the following EXCEPT
Answer
D. Plyometrics
60
In Aging muscle all are seen EXCEPT
Answer
D. Increase in max in muscles
61
In the electrodiagnostic testing, the item measured in the nerve action potential from the time of stimulation to the onset or peak of response is termed as
Answer
B. Latency
62
The late response involving the motor axons and axonal pool which is elicited by maximal stimulus in electrodiagnostic studies
Answer
D. F wave
63
Electrophysiologically recorded achilles muscle/soleus muscle stretch reflex in electrodiagnostic study is
Answer
C. H Reflex
64
In Ema, the spontaneous muscle fibre activity at rest after insertional activity has subsided is termed as
Answer
A. Fibrillation potential
65
Disorders of Neuromuscular junction pre and post synaptic include all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Peripheral Neuropathy
66
In diagnostic ultrasound of the shoulder in a long axis scan, the beak shaped echogenic fibrillar structure extending under the Acromion between the Humeral head and the sub acromial/subdeltoid burse is ____ tendon
Answer
C. Supraspinatus
67
In Diagnostic ultrasound of shoulder, the sonographic feature of a full thickness tendon is a
Answer
B. Anechoic defect
68
In Diagnostic ultrasound, with the arm kept in neutral position, the _____ tendon is visualised as, oval echogenic structure withing the bicipital grorve
Answer
C. Long head of biceps
69
Jumpers knee is
Answer
A. Patellar tendinopathy
70
The type of Nerve injury where there is reversible focal conduction block with local myelin injury with axonal continuity
Answer
D. Neuropraxia
71
Physiological blocking of A delta fibres is achieved at a minimal frequency of
Answer
B. >40 Hertz
72
The following are true about Electrical stimulation EXCEPT :
Answer
B. Stimulation of sensory nerve by Faradic current produces burning pain sensation
73
Intense TENS is
Answer
C. High Frequency high intensity TENS
74
The following is NOT true about cryotherapy :
Answer
D. Unlike heat, cold can be safely applied in areas of impaired circulation
75
The following are true about Paraffin was bath except :
Answer
C. Wax has high thermal conductivity
76
Shock waves used in medicine are
Answer
A. High intensity waves
77
Vapocoolant spray used in acute injury contains :
Answer
B. Fluori methane
78
Frequency of therapeutic ultrasound is
Answer
A. 1-3 MHz
79
Indications of or use of microcurrents include all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Incontinence
80
The metabolic rate of tissues decreases on cooling. This is as per
Answer
A. Vant Hoff's law
81
Which of the following is mostly used by athletes to increase muscle mass and enhance performance?
Answer
A. Creatine
82
Which of the following is True
Answer
A. ATP storage is sufficient for only 5-7 seconds of activity
83
Which of the following is a non essential amino acid
Answer
D. Glycine
84
Which of the following is NOT recommended for weight loss objective
Answer
C. Drastic reduction of fat intake
85
The recommended weight loss per week in an athlete is
Answer
B. 0.5-1 kg
86
Which of the following is NOT TRUE
Answer
D. High carbohydrate intake can minimise metabolic overtraining
87
Which of the sporting activity has an energy expenditure between 4 and 10 METS
Answer
C. Golf
88
Following about Thiamine is NOT TRUE
Answer
B. Muscle tissue contains insignificant levels of Thiamine
89
Which one of the following reduces supply of iron to the body
Answer
D. Consuming tea or coffee with meals
90
Following are true about bulking EXCEPT:
Answer
D. The average calorie consumption is 2800 for males and 1200 for females
91
In normal gait, following are true EXCEPT:
Answer
C. In the knee, GRF at initial contact is located anteriorly
92
The most common diplegic gait pattern in children in
Answer
A. Jump gait
93
Causes of knee recurvatum in gait are EXCEPT:
Answer
D. Quadriceps spasticity
94
The following is NOT true about isokinetic systems
Answer
C. High joint compressive forces are observed at higher speed
95
Supination of foot involved
Answer
D. Calcaneal inversion
96
Positive Hubscher test indicates
Answer
A. Flexible flat foot
97
The process of differentiation of adult somatic cells to produce pluripotent stem cell without embryo is
Answer
B. Reprogramming
98
Which of the followng is NOT true?
Answer
C. Autologous cell culture has high risk of malignant transformation
99
Platelet Rich Plasma
Answer
A. Is prepared by differential centrifugation
100
Which of the following is true
Answer
C. Gluteaus medius gait is characterised by excessive pelvic list

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