| Post Name | Medical Records Librarian Gr II. |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 166/2025 |
| Category Code | 490/2024, 731/2024 |
| Date of Test | 5 December 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Name the tendons of forearm between which radial pulse if felt :
Answer
A. Flexor carpi radialis and Brachioradialis
2
Name the vein that crosses the roof of ‘Anatomical Snuff box’ :
Answer
C. Cephalic vein
3
Among the following which artery is used as a graft in coronary artery bypass surgery?
Answer
B. Internal mammary artery
4
All statements are true, regarding bronchopulmonary segments of lungs except one :
Answer
C. Right lung has 11 bronchopulmonary units
5
Arterial supply of suprarenal gland include :
Answer
D. All of the above
6
Tarsal bones include :
Answer
D. (A) and (C)
7
Most dependant part of the peritoneal cavity below pelvic brim in upright position is :
Answer
A. Pouch of Douglas
8
Name the artery which is usually palpated in peripheral vaso occlusive diseases of lower
limb :
Answer
C. Dorsalis Pedis artery
9
To which type joint basisphenoid joint of skull belongs :
Answer
A. Primary cartilaginous joint
10
Odantoid process is seen as a feature of which vertebra?
Answer
B. Axis
11
In which part of eye ciliary body belongs to :
Answer
C. Uveal tract
12
Which part of brain shows folia in sagittal section?
Answer
B. Cerebellum
13
What is removed by a pneumonectomy?
(i) The pleural sac
(ii) A tumor of the inner ear
(iii) The lung
(iv) A cyst in the muscle of the foot
Answer
B. Only (iii)
14
—————— is the process of withdrawing samples of fluid from a joint.
(i) Arthrocentesis
(ii) Paracentesis
(iii) Thoracocentesis
(iv) Cannulation
Answer
C. Only (i)
15
Which term describe the surgical incision of the eardrum to create an opening for the
placement of tympanostomy tubes?
(i) Myringoplasty
(ii) Otoplasty
(iii) Myringotomy
(iv) Tympanoplasty
Answer
A. Only (iii)
16
The abbreviation —————— means left eye, especially used in lens prescriptions.
(i) OD
(ii) AU
(iii) OS
(iv) OU
Answer
C. Only (iii)
17
Difficulty of breathing is termed as :
(i) Dyspepsia
(ii) Dysphagia
(iii) Dysphasia
(iv) Dyspnea
Answer
D. Only (iv)
18
What is the correct meaning to the symbol #?
(i) Fracture
(ii) With
(iii) Approximately
(iv) Diagnosis
Answer
C. Only (i)
19
What color is referred to in the term Xanthoma?
(i) White
(ii) Purple
(iii) Grey
(iv) Yellow
Answer
C. Only (iv)
20
A ‘‘blue’’ discoloration of the skin :
(i) Cilium
(ii) Effusion
(iii) Edema
(iv) Cyanosis
Answer
A. Only (iv)
21
What is the correct meaning to the suffix ‘‘Osis’’?
(i) Movements
(ii) Paralysis
(iii) Pain
(iv) Condition
Answer
B. Only (iv)
22
Which of the following best defines a suffix?
(i) Found in all medical terms
(ii) Found at the beginning of the root
(iii) Always found in the middle of the world
(iv) Found at the end of the root
Answer
C. Only (iv)
23
What is correct suffix for ‘‘Movement’’?
(i) Pnea
(ii) Osis
(iii) Algia
(iv) Taxis
Answer
D. Only (iv)
24
The Prefix ‘‘Pan’’ means/refers to :
(i) Many
(ii) Half
(iii) All or Total
(iv) None of the above
Answer
B. Only (iii)
25
WHO Family of International Classification includes all of the following EXCEPT :
Answer
B. Hospital registry classification
26
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the code structure of the
ICD-11?
(i) Code starting with ‘z’ indicate an extension code
(ii) The first character of the code indicates the chapter number
(iii) The letters ‘O’ and ‘I’ are omitted from code structure
(iv) A forced number at the second character position prevents spelling ‘undesirable
words’
Answer
C. (ii) and (iii)
27
SNOMED CT is:
Answer
D. Clinical terminology used in health records
166/2025 7 A
28
Which is the CORRECT explanation for the terminology ‘due to’ for categories in
ICD-11?
Answer
A. Where two conditions are mentioned and causal sequence exists
29
Which of the following are the unique features of ICD-11 EXCEPT :
Answer
C. Single code
30
Which of the following statements are CORRECT?
(i) Block codes reporting aggregated statistics
(ii) Stem codes always described in multiple categories
(iii) Post coordination helps to link core diagnostic concepts
(iv) Block codes do not have category codes
Answer
C. (i), (iii), (iv)
31
Which of the following statements are INCORRECT regarding content model in ICD-11?
(i) Fully specified term is an unambiguous title
(ii) A short description appears only in online electronic version
(iii) Additional information is mandatory
(iv) A short description available in both the content model and tabular list
Answer
C. (ii), (iii)
32
Which of the following best defines data integrity in a health information system?
Answer
B. Accuracy, consistency and reliability of data over its lifecycle
33
The process primarily aims to identify and correct the root causes of claim rejections are
called :
Answer
C. Denial Management
34
The process of ensuring data interoperability between Electronic Health Record (EHR)
systems depends on :
Answer
A. Standardized Terminologies
35
Amendments to an Electronic Health Record (EHR) should be :
Answer
C. Added as new entry with user ID and timestamp
36
Which document type in a patient’s record has the highest medico-legal importance?
Answer
D. Discharge Summary
37
A hospital transitioning from paper-based to electronic records should first focus on :
Answer
B. Staff training and workflow redesign
38
When integrating Electronic Health Record (EHR) with laboratory systems, which of the
following is most critical to avoid duplication?
Answer
D. Master patient index
39
In a problem-oriented medical record (POMR), which of the following is used to
document care?
Answer
A. SOAP notes
40
Which of the following retrieval systems allows citation-based searching?
Answer
A. SCOPUS
41
Metadata standards like Dublin Core are primarily used for :
Answer
B. Describing digital resources
42
Which of the following indexing systems uses a controlled vocabulary for subject
representation?
Answer
C. Chain Indexing
43
The ‘Recall Ratio’ in information retrieval measures :
Answer
B. Proportion of relevant items retrieved
44
Which of the following is an example of a federated search system?
Answer
D. MetaLib
45
Which hospital management function involves comparing actual performance with
planned results?
Answer
C. Controlling
46
The mission statement of a hospital defines :
Answer
D. Purpose and reason for existence
47
The span of control in hospital administration refers to :
Answer
A. Number of subordinates reporting a manager
48
The most suitable organizational structure for large multi-specialty hospitals is :
Answer
D. Matrix organization
49
The Hospital Committee System is designed to :
Answer
A. Facilitate participative management
50
In hospital administration, decentralization means :
Answer
B. Distribution of decision making to lower levels
51
In hospital classification, a Tertiary Care Hospital provides :
Answer
C. Specialized and super-specialty care
52
Accreditation body for hospitals mainly focuses on :
Answer
B. Patient safety and quality standards
53
Read the following statements and give the correct meaning of ‘‘Clinical Pathology’’ :
Answer
B. Clinical Pathology is a medical specialty that focuses on the analysis of bodily
fluids to assist in diagnosing diseases or ensuring long-term health
54
This definition of Health as ‘‘A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being
and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity’’ was given by :
Answer
A. World Health Organization
55
All the following are features of a Benign tumor except :
Answer
D. Metastasize frequently
56
Among the following systems of classification of Medical Textbooks in a Medical Library,
which is the least used system in Kerala?
Answer
D. DC)
57
All the following statements are true about a Malignant tumor ‘‘except’’ :
Answer
D. They are usually well encapsulated
58
Microorganisms were first observed by :
Answer
C. Antony Van Leeuwenhoek
59
One who has recovered from the disease and continues to harbour and shed the pathogen
from his body is :
Answer
C. Convalescent carriers
60
Which among the following is not a serological test?
Answer
A. Gram staining
61
Infectious agents transmitted through aerosols include all except :
Answer
D. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
62
Vector borne infections include :
Answer
D. All of the above
63
Choose the correct statements about serum alkaline phosphatase estimation :
(i) Serum alkaline phosphatase rise several times above the reference level in
cholestasis
(ii) There is marked elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase in rickets
(iii) Alpha fraction of alkaline phosphatase is raised in bone disease
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
64
All the following are true about Van Den Bergh test :
(i) Van Den Bergh reagent contain sulfanilic acid and potassium sulphate
(ii) A direct reaction is indicated by the immediate development of a purple colour
which is given by conjugated bilirubin
(iii) A Biphasic reaction is given when the colour develops immediately, but intensifies
on addition of alcohol
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
65
Choose the correct statements about creatinine clearance test :
(i) Normal creatinine clearance value is 100 mL/min/1.73 meter2
(ii) A decreased creatinine clearance is a very sensitive indicator of reduced glomerular
filtration rate
(iii) The importance of creatinine clearance is in the early detection of functional
impairment of kidney without overt signs and symptoms
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
66
Choose the correct statement about flame photometer :
(i) This is an analytical instrument used for quantitative analysis of sodium,
potassium and calcium
(ii) In flame photometer the optical absorption property is used
(iii) The equipment consists of an atomiser and compressor which pumps air at high
pressure
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
67
All the following are cardiac markers EXCEPT :
Answer
A. SGPT
68
Match the following :
(i) Hippocrates
Answer
C. Anthropometry
(iv) Alphonse Bertillon
69
Select the circumstances in which Magistrate’s inquest is conducted :
(i) Digging out of a secretly buried body
(ii) A head-on collision between a school van and a car resulted in the tragic deaths of
seven children
(iii) A woman was found hanging in her house within two years of her marriage
(iv) An accused person was found dead while in police custody
Answer
D. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
70
Choose the correct statement regarding Cross Examination in a court of law :
Answer
B. To test the accuracy of the statements given by the witness
71
Read the following statements regarding evidence in a court of law and choose the most
appropriate option given below :
(i) Oral evidence is considered superior to documentary evidence
(ii) Oral evidence is subjected to cross examination.
Answer
A. Both statements (i) & (ii) are true. Statement (ii) is the correct explanation
for statement (i)
72
Leaving a mop inside a patient during surgery amounts to :
Answer
B. Criminal negligence
73
Medicolegal significance of age 14 years is related to which of the following law?
Answer
A. Indian Factories Act 1948
74
Water plants were firmly grasped by the deceased’s right hand when the body was
recovered from the pond. This phenomenon is due to which of the following?
Answer
D. Cadaveric spasm
75
‘‘The autopsy revealed a brush burn type injury on the deceased’s back’’. Which of the
following statement is true?
Answer
C. This injury is due to moving of the body against a rough surface
76
Which among the following statement is true about the schedule method of collecting
primary data?
Answer
A. An enumerator fill the data in a prescribed questionnaire by face to face
interaction with the respondent
77
Suppose a company wants to analyze the quality of a service provided by it to the
customers all over the world. Which of the following method is more appropriate to
collect the data?
Answer
B. Questionnaire method
78
Which among the following statement is true?
Answer
D. The variable ‘Height’ is an example of ratio scale measurement
79
Which of the following sampling procedure is most suitable to collect data from a
homogeneous population?
Answer
C. Simple random sampling
80
To study the distribution of blood sugar of persons in an area, 1000 persons are
randomly selected and their random blood sugars are measured. To prepare a grouped
frequency distribution of the collected data, the number classes using the Sturge’s rule
will be equal to :
Answer
B. 11
81
Which is of the following statements are true about arithmetic mean?
(i) Arithmetic mean is a suitable average for both quantitative and qualitative
variables
(ii) Arithmetic mean provides distorted average when there exists extreme
observations in the data
(iii) Sum of deviations of a collection of observations is zero when the deviations are
taken from their arithmetic mean
(iv) In extremely skewed distribution arithmetic mean is a suitable measure of location
Answer
B. (ii) and (iii) only
82
The arithmetic mean of marks obtained in Bio-Statistics of 150 students in a college of
Pharmacy is 60. The arithmetic mean of marks of boys and girls are 75 and 50
respectively. Then the number of boys and girls respectively are :
Answer
C. (60, 90)
83
The coefficient of variation is :
Answer
D. a relative measure of dispersion
166/2025 16 A
84
A set of observations 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 have the frequencies 5, 4, 4, 3 and 2, respectively.
Then the median is :
Answer
B. 7.5
85
A hospital declares a salary increase of Rs. 900 for all of its technical staff in the next
month. Then the standard deviation of the new salaries when compared to the standard
deviations of the previous salaries :
Answer
A. is the same
86
Number of deaths during the first 28 completed days of life per 1000 live births in a
given year or other period is called :
Answer
B. neonatal mortality rate
87
Which of the following statement is not true?
Answer
D. If net reproduction rate is greater than one, then the population has tendency
to decrease
88
Which of the following is a two dimensional diagram?
Answer
A. Histogram
89
‘‘The science of statistics is essentially a branch of applied mathematics and may be
regarded as mathematics applied to observational data’’. This definition of statistics is
given by :
Answer
A. R.A. Fisher
90
Nationality of a student is :
Answer
A. Attribute
91
Important sources of secondary data are :
Answer
D. All the above
166/2025 17 A
92
Sampling frame is a term used for :
Answer
C. A list of sampling units of a population
93
Most extreme value which would ever be included in a class interval are called :
Answer
C. Class boundaries
94
Sampling error can be reduced by :
Answer
D. All the above
95
The breadth of the rectangle is equal to the length of the class interval in :
Answer
B. Histogram
96
The presence of extreme observations affect :
Answer
A. Mean
97
The arithmetic mean of first n natural numbers is :
n( n + 1)
Answer
B. 2
n( n + 2)
98
If standard deviation of X is 5, then what is the variance of 6 − 2 X ?
Answer
A. 100
99
As the sample size increases, range also tends to :
Answer
B. Increases
100
Diagrammatic representation of cumulative frequency distribution is :
Answer
C. Ogive
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