| Post Name | MEDICAL SOCIAL WORKER - MEDICAL EDUCATION |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 149/2023 |
| Category Code | 031/2020 |
| Date of Test | 14 August 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Elizabethan Poor Law of 1601 was the foundation of the ——————— concept of social
welfare :
Answer
C. Residual
2
Which is not the NASW value?
Answer
D. Charity
3
What is the process through which social policy is transformed into social service?
Answer
B. Social welfare administration
4
——————— theories explain the structure and dynamics of person’s experiences within
socio political and interpersonal sexual hierarchies.
Answer
B. Feminist
5
——————— function assist individuals and groups to identify and resolve or minimize the
problems arising out of a disequilibrium between themselves and the environment.
Answer
B. Remedial
6
The statement, ‘What do you mean when you use the word....?”. This is an example of the
interviewing skill :
Answer
D. Clarification
7
Which principle of case work is related to the statement “case work function excludes
assigning guilt or innocence or degree of client responsibility of causation of problems”?
Answer
B. Non-judgemental attitude
8
Which one of the following is not a defense mechanism?
Answer
D. Confrontation
9
Crisis intervention is
Answer
B. Restorative Model
10
Case worker-client relationship is the crux of :
Answer
D. All of these
11
Groups such as Alcoholics Anonymous support groups are examples of :
Answer
B. Self-help groups
12
A sociogram is a visual depiction of :
Answer
A. Relationship between group members
13
The forces acting on members to remain in a group is called :
Answer
D. Group cohesion
14
Which group work process stage is also known as contract stage?
Answer
D. Intake
15
The interaction pattern that occurs when group members take turns talking is known as :
Answer
B. Round Robin
16
Status acquired by birth is termed as :
Answer
A. Ascribed Status
17
Which of the following theoretical perspective of sociology focuses primarily on social order
and stability?
Answer
A. Functionalist
18
______________is the stripping away of learned patterns and substitution of new ones for
them.
Answer
D. Re-socialisation
19
——————— is used as a unique method in Family therapy.
Answer
A. Circular questioning
20
——————— is any organized effort to provide family members with information, skills,
experiences, or resources intended to strengthen, improve or enrich their family experience.
Answer
C. Family life education
21
What is the primary objective of the RPWD Act 2016?
Answer
D. Protecting the rights and ensuring the full participation of persons with
disabilities.
22
Which of the following conditions is NOT a legal ground for obtaining an abortion under the
MTP Act 1971?
Answer
D. Socio-economic factors and financial constraints.
23
What is the maximum gestational age limit within which an abortion can be performed
under the MTP Act 1971 without the approval of a medical board?
Answer
B. 20 weeks
24
Which of the following offenses is covered under the PCPNDT Act 1994?
Answer
C. Female feticide and determination of the sex of the fetus.
25
Assertion : The Biomedical Waste Management and Handling Rules, 1998, provide
guidelines for the proper management and disposal of biomedical waste in
India.
Statement : The Biomedical Waste Management and Handling Rules, 1998, mandate the
segregation, collection, storage, transportation, and treatment of biomedical
waste.
Which of the following options best describes the relationship between the assertion and the
statement?
Answer
A. Both the assertion and the statement are true, and the statement is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
26
Assertion : The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences(POCSO) Act is a legal
framework in India that aims to protect children from sexual abuse and
exploitation.
Statement : The POCSO Act provides legal provisions for the mandatory reporting of
child sexual abuse cases and the establishment of special courts for the
speedy trial of such offenses.
Which of the following options best describes the relationship between the assertion and the
statement?
Answer
A. Both the assertion and the statement are true, and the statement is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
27
Erik Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development includes stages that span across the
lifespan. Which of the following represents a correctly matched stage and its associated
conflict?
Answer
C. Generativity vs. Stagnation – Middle Adulthood.
28
According to Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory, which of the following represents
the correct order of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?
Answer
B. Sensorimotor -> Preoperational -> Concrete Operational -> Formal Operational
29
Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of three levels of moral reasoning.
Which of the following represents a correctly matched level and its associated focus?
Answer
Question Cancelled
30
The concept of “nature versus nurture’’ has long been debated in developmental psychology.
Which of the following statements best represents the current understanding of the nature-
nurture debate?
Answer
C. Both nature and nurture interact and contribute to human behavior and
development.
31
Puberty is a period of rapid physical and hormonal changes that mark the onset of sexual
maturity. Which of the following is a primary sex characteristic that develops during
puberty?
Answer
C. Development of breasts in females
32
Which of the following statements accurately represents a key aspect of old age development?
Answer
A. Old age is characterized by a decline in cognitive abilities and an inability to learn
new information.
33
Which of the following vitamins is essential for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus in
the body?
Answer
C. Vitamin D
34
Which of the following micronutrient deficiencies is most prevalent among children in India?
Answer
A. Iron deficiency
35
Which of the following are NOT true about “Quinoa”?
Answer
D. All of these are correct
36
Which of the following dairy products is a good source of calcium?
Answer
B. Yogurt
37
Which of the following factors contributes to the persistence of malnutrition in India?
Answer
D. All of the above
149/2023 8 A
38
Assertion : Iron deficiency can lead to anaemia, characterized by fatigue, weakness, and
shortness of breath.
Statement : Good dietary sources of iron include red meat, spinach, and lentils.
Answer
A. Both the assertion and statement are true, and the statement is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
39
Health is influenced by various factors. Which of the following represents a social
determinant of health?
Answer
B. Access to healthcare services
40
The Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion identifies three basic strategies for improving
health. Which of the following is not one of those strategies?
Answer
C. Enhancing individual genetics
41
Health indicators are measurements used to assess the health status of populations. Which
of the following indicators is used to measure the burden of disease in a population?
Answer
C. Disability-Adjusted Life Years(DALYs)
42
The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite indicator that measures the overall
development of a country. Which of the following factors are included in the calculation of
HDI?
Answer
A. Life expectancy at birth, education, and income per capita
43
Assertion : An outbreak refers to the sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease
within a specific geographic area.
Statement : An epidemic refers to the constant presence of a disease within a particular
population or geographic area.
Answer
C. The assertion is true, but the statement is false.
44
Which of the following are NOT considered to be metabolic risk factors of NCDs?
Answer
D. All these are correct
45
Medical social workers play an important role in healthcare settings. Which of the following
best describes the primary focus of their work?
Answer
C. Advocating for patient’s rights and access to care
46
Medical social workers assess the psychosocial needs of patients. Which of the following
factors is not typically considered as part of a psychosocial assessment?
Answer
C. Genetic predisposition
47
An individual care plan in medical social work is :
Answer
C. A comprehensive plan that addresses the unique needs of a patient.
48
Which of the following statements accurately reflects the purpose of case recording in medical
social work?
Answer
C. Case recording serves as a comprehensive and organized documentation of client
assessments, interventions, and progress.
49
Autopsy is a medico-legal procedure performed to :
Answer
A. Determine the cause of death.
50
Conflict resolution is a common challenge within multidisciplinary teams. Which of the
following strategies is recommended for managing conflicts in a health setting?
Answer
C. Encouraging open and respectful communication to address conflicts
constructively
51
People have a tendency to bias our descriptions of people by their general liking for them.
This is called :
Answer
A. Halo effect
52
According to Allport ______________ trait dominates a personality so much that it influences
nearly everything a person does.
Answer
B. Cardinal
53
What does it mean when you say that there is little cross-situational consistency?
Answer
D. People’s behavior varies greatly from situation to situation
54
Match the following theories and theorists
Answer
A. Five factor model (i) Jerry Wiggins
55
According to Jung, archetypes are :
Answer
C. Transpersonal
56
According to Erikson which is the stage that the individual comes to value a giving of self to
others
Answer
B. Generativity vs. stagnation
57
A college student date-raped at a party might develop a ‘personality’ that fears college social
events that involve alcohol. Which personality theory best explains this:
Answer
D. Behaviorist
58
Which among the following is the correct explanation for learned helplessness?
Answer
B. Repeated exposure to unavoidable punishment leaves an organism to accept
punishment even when it is avoidable
59
On whose theory is the Myers Brigg’s Type Indicator based?
Answer
C. Jung
60
In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs which needs come above self-actualization needs.
Answer
A. Transcendence needs
61
______________ examines how perceptual performance is based on expectations.
Answer
C. Signal detection theory
62
______________ incorporates the general idea that incoming stimuli are subjected to a series
of analysis starting with shallow sensory analysis and proceeding to deeper analysis.
Answer
B. Levels of processing
63
Match the following :
Answer
A. Episodic memory (i) Mental thesaurus
64
In binocular convergence stimulus appear closer when:
Answer
D. Eyes feel tug inward toward nose
65
______________ occurs when recognition of certain stimuli is affected by prior presentation of
the same or similar stimuli.
Answer
C. Priming
66
Processes that require intentional effort and full conscious awareness
Answer
C. Controlled processes
67
Becoming accustomed to a stimulus so that we gradually pay less and less attention to it.
Answer
A. Habituation
68
Which among the following is a false negative?
Answer
C. Miss
69
Superior recall of words at and near the beginning of a list
Answer
A. Primacy effect
70
Transcience, absent mindedness, blocking, misattribution, persistence are all :
Answer
B. Memory distortions
71
What is it when a competitor say ‘I am glad to beat you’, when what was actually intended
was ‘I am to meet you’?
Answer
C. Slip of the tongue
72
A test is said to be consistent over a given period of time when:
Answer
D. All the above
149/2023 14 A
73
Homogeneity of the test is indicated in which type of reliability?
Answer
B. Internal consistency reliability
74
The longer the test :
Answer
D. More reliable and more valid it becomes
75
______________ norms are most suited to those traits or abilities which increase
systematically with age.
Answer
A. Age equivalent norms
76
Who among the following defined intelligence as general intellectual capacity?
Answer
B. Binet
77
Which is the first individual intelligence test?
Answer
D. Binet - Simon scale
78
Which among the following is the equation for IQ?
Answer
D. MA/CA × 100
79
______________ is a test that measures the extent to which a person has acquired certain
information or proficiency as a function of instruction or training.
Answer
C. Achievement test
80
Torrance test of creativity gives three scores to each examinee. Which are they?
Answer
C. Fluency, Flexibility, Originality
81
Which of the following is not a features of psychotherapy?
Answer
A. Produce symptomatic and temporary change
82
Which of the following is considered as a higher ordered level of emotional expression and a
sign of increasing levels of self actualisation which is the ultimate goal of counselling.
Answer
C. Immediacy
83
In gestalt counselling contact boundary disturbances between self and outside world in which
a person agree with another to the extent that boundary is blurred is known as :
Answer
B. Confluence
84
The therapy which help to eliminate client’s irrational and self-defeating outlook on life and
replace it with a more tolerant and rational one.
Answer
C. RET
85
A T-group that focuses on personal and interpersonal issues and on personal growth of the
individual.
Answer
B. Sensitivity groups
86
The method used to assist clients to become free of scripts and games in their interactions.
Answer
A. TA
87
Which of the following is not a barrier to effective communication in counselling?
Answer
D. Confrontation
88
Which of the following characteristic of client is favorable for behavioral counselling?
Answer
C. Want to change a discrete and limited number of behaviours
89
In Existential counselling the world of the client is referred to as :
Answer
D. Phenomenological world
90
Which of the following is an exemption to ethical principles of confidentiality?
Answer
D. Legal authorities asked for disclosure
91
The disorder characterized by a preponderance of atropy in the frontotemporal regions.
Answer
B. Pick’s disease
92
The type of schizophrenia characterized by motoric immobility or stupor.
Answer
A. Catatonic type
93
Which of the following predict good prognosis of schizophrenia?
Answer
B. Late onset
94
Which in a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
Answer
D. Delusions
95
A condition that may not coexist with mood disorder.
Answer
D. Paranoia
96
Which among the following is not an anxiety disorder?
Answer
C. Fugue
97
Panic disorder is often accompanied by:
Answer
B. Agoraphobia
98
The most common of paraphilia is:
Answer
A. Pedophilia
99
The type of personality disorder in which a person neither desires nor enjoys close
relationships including being part of a family.
Answer
B. Schizoid
100
Which of the following is not a defining feature of Autistic disorder?
Answer
C. Impaired intellect
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