| Post Name | Microbiologist - Food Safety (Govt. Analytical Laboratory) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 027/2022 |
| Category Code | 055/2019 |
| Date of Test | 27 March 2022 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following staining procedure is employed for DNA ?
Answer
A. Feulgen staining
2
Which of the following inclusion body/bodies are present in Cyanobacteria ?
i. Cyanophycin granules
ii. Carboxysomes
iii. Poly metaphosphate
iv. Poly � hydroxy butyrate
Answer
A. i and ii
3
The following statements are characteristic of metabolic plasmids.
i. They carry genes for enzymes that degrade aromatic substances.
ii. They carry genes required for Rhizobium to induce legume nodulation.
iii. They contain genes that codes for an enterotoxin.
iv. They contain genes coding for antibiotic resistance.
Answer
A. i and ii
4
Pick out the false statement/statements against peptidoglycan of bacteria.
i. The presence of D amino acids protects against degradation by most peptidases.
ii.
Answer
C. Only iv
5
Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding halophiles ?
i. Halophiles grow optimally in the presence of NaCl or other salts at a concentration
above 0.2 M.
ii. Halophilic prokaryotes accumulate enormous quantities of potassium in order to
remain hypertonic to their environment.
iii. The plasma membrane and cell wall of Halobacterium are stabilized by low
concentrations of sodium ion.
iv. Enzymes, ribosomes and transport proteins requires high potassium levels for
stability and activity.
Answer
C. Only iv
6
Match the given sterilant or disinfectants with their efficacy and choose the best answer
given below.
Sterilant/Disinfectant Efficacy
i. Betapropiolactone
Answer
C. i – d, ii – a, iii – e, iv – b, v – c
7
Match the antibiotics to their mechanism of action and choose the answer given below.
Antibiotic Mode of action
i. Macrolides a. Inhibits replication
ii. Aminoglycosides b. Inhibits transpeptidation
iii. Sulphonamides c. Interfere with protein synthesis
iv. Penicillins d. Inhibits folic acid synthesis
v. Quinolones e. Peptide chain elongation
Answer
C. i – e, ii – c, iii – d, iv – b, v – a
8
Pick out the statement which is false regarding the accessory pigment of photosynthesis.
Answer
C. Accessory pigments absorbs light in the range absorbed by the chlorophylls
9
Spikes containing neuraminidase and haemagglutinin are present in one of the following
viruses.
Answer
C. Influenza virus
10
Amanitin, a mycotoxin, produced by Amanita verna causes the disease
Answer
C. Mushroom poisoning
11
Greatest resolution is obtained by using a lens with
Answer
A. Large possible numerical aperture and light of the shortest wavelength
12
Thin and distinctively shaped, Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis is
better identified in clinical specimens, by using
Answer
B. Dark field microscope
13
Which of the following statement is not true of gel electrophoresis ?
Answer
D. Each fragment’s migration rate is directly proportional to the log of its molecular weight
14
Choose the techniques which are effective in the purification of a virus preparation.
i. Differential centrifugation
ii. Gradient centrifugation
iii. SDS PAGE
iv. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
Answer
A. i and ii
15
Which of the following statements is/are not true of sedimentation ?
i. The sedimentation rate of a given particle will be zero when the density of the
particle and the surrounding medium are equal.
ii. The greater the frictional coefficient is, the slower a particle will move.
iii. The greater the centrifugal force is, the slower the particle sediments.
iv. The denser the biological buffer system is, the slower the particle will move in a
centrifugal field.
Answer
C. Only iii
16
Caesium chloride, widely employed in the density gradient centrifugation, is used for the
i. Banding of DNA
ii. Isolation of plasmids
iii. Isolation of nucleoproteins
iv. Isolation of viruses
Answer
C. i, ii, iii and iv
17
_________ are strong exchangers, as they are totally ionized at all normal working pH
values which are often used in the ion exchange chromatography.
Answer
A. Sulphonate and quaternary ammonium
18
Match the substance and the reagent used in Colorimetric and UV absorption assays.
Substance Reagent
i. Amino acids a. Diphenylamine
ii. Cysteine b. Bial
iii. Protein c. Ellman reagent
iv. DNA d. Ninhydrin
v. RNA e. Coomassie blue
Answer
B. i – d, ii – c, iii – e, iv – a, v – b
19
Match the following and choose the best answer given below.
Spectroscopic technique Application
i. NMR a. Study metallo proteins
ii. EPR b. Imaging of live samples
iii. SPR c. Identification of sample constituents
iv. Infrared spectroscopy d. Assess particle size
v. Fluorescence spectroscopy e. Study the kinetics of antigen antibody interaction
Answer
D. i – b, ii – a, iii – e, iv – c, v – d
20
Isolation of eukaryotic mRNA from a mixture of total cellular RNA is carried out by
_________ technique.
Answer
A. Affinity chromatography
21
Which of the following statements is/are correct relating to passive immunity ?
i. Preformed antibodies are administered.
ii. There is no latent period.
iii. It involves the active functioning of the immune system.
iv. Immunity is long lasting.
Answer
A. i and ii
22
The following statement is/are not true regarding superantigen like Staphylococcus
enterotoxin.
i. They activate a large number of T cells irrespective of their antigen specificity.
ii. They bind outside the antibody binding groove directly to the lateral aspect of TCR
� chain.
iii. They bind to the �� heterodimer groove of the MHC molecules through the
V regions of TCR � and � chains.
iv. They are highly resistant to proteases and denaturation by CD4+T cells.
Answer
C. Only iii
23
Complementarity Determining Regions
Answer
B. Fab fragment of antibody
24
Which of the following statement/statements is/are characteristic of secretory IgA (SIgA) ?
i. Secretory piece present in SIgA is not produced by lymphoid cells.
ii. Secretory piece is believed to protect SIgA from denaturation by bacterial proteases.
iii. SIgA (MW about 4,00,000) is a smaller molecule than serum IgA.
iv. IgA fixes complement.
Answer
A. i and ii
25
The following is an/are example/examples of heterophile agglutination tests.
i. Weil-Felix test
ii. Paul-Bunnel test
iii. Streptococcus MG agglutination test
iv. Widal test
Answer
B. i, ii, iii
26
Complement participates in
i. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
ii. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
iii. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
iv. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Answer
B. ii and iii
27
Which HLA Class molecule/molecules is/are responsible for the graft-versus-host
response ?
Answer
B. HLA Class II
28
Which of the following acts as an adjuvant in DPT vaccine ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
29
Which of the deficiency leads to Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome ?
Answer
A. T and B cell
30
Which of the following statement/statements is/are true of tumour antigens ?
i. Oncofetal antigens are found in embryonic and malignant cells.
ii. Carcinoembryonic antigen can be detected in the serum of patients with colon of
carcinoma.
iii. The tumour associated transplantation antigens of virus induced tumours is virus
specific.
iv. The tumour antigens are absent in the corresponding normal cells of the host.
Answer
A. i, ii and iii
31
O-linked oligosaccharides are added to the serine or threonine residues of proteins
post-translationally in the Golgi apparatus while N-linked oligosaccharides are added
cotranslationally to the asparagine residues of proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum.
Which one of them can influence the folding of the protein the most ?
Answer
B. N-linked oligosaccharides
32
Of the following lipid components, which one increases the fluidity of the cell membrane
the most ?
Answer
A. Cis unsaturated fatty acids
33
When a protein denatures
Answer
C. Secondary and tertiary structure are altered, but primary structure is intact, though
its function is lost
34
A plant extract reduced pepsin activity to 2/3 of its original activity. Doubling the protein substrate restored the original activity. What maximum reaction velocity is observed in the presence of the extract? (The value without extract is Vₘₐₓ.)
Answer
A. Vₘₐₓ
35
Receptors of peptide hormones are
Answer
C. Transmembrane
36
Scientist have identified a new species of plant from Western Ghats. To study its
uniqueness, they isolated the DNA and prepared a cot value curve. Which of the
following information is not possible to get, on analyzing the cot value curve ?
Answer
D. Determination of exact GC content
37
Which of the following molecule is derived from cholesterol ?
Answer
B. Taurocholic acid
38
Ammonium sulphate precipitation is commonly employed during the isolation of proteins.
Which of the following technique can be used to remove ammonium sulphate from the
solution after ammonium sulphate precipitation ?
Answer
C. Dialysis
39
In some inflammatory and autoimmune diseases, arginine residues in histones are replaced by citrulline. Arginine: NH₂–C(=NH₂⁺)–NH–(CH₂)₃–CH(NH₃⁺)–COO⁻; Citrulline: NH₂–C(=O)–NH–(CH₂)₃–CH(NH₃⁺)–COO⁻. What change occurs in electrophoretic mobility?
Answer
A. Citrullinated proteins move faster than native proteins towards the anode
40
Which of the following statement about fructose is true ?
Answer
D. All of the above
41
The linking number of DNA
Answer
D. All the above
42
The Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I has
Answer
B. 3� – 5� exonuclease activity
43
The role of �70 (sigma-70) in prokaryotic transcription is
Answer
D. Recognizing the promoter and initiating RNA synthesis
44
Eukaryotic RNA polymerase II transcribes
Answer
C. mRNA
45
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding splicing ?
Answer
C. The 2� – OH of the adenine at the branch site attacks the 3� – splice site
46
Lac repressor protein in the absence of inducer binds to the operator and thereby
Answer
B. Blocks transcription
47
The phenomenon by which some t-RNA molecules recognize more than one codon is
because of
Answer
B. Wobble base pairing
48
Shine-Dalgarno sequence is
Answer
D. All the above
49
The enzyme which can be used to synthesize DNA from mRNA by providing an oligo(dT)
primer that pairs with the poly
Answer
A. sequence at the 3� end of eukaryotic mRNA is
50
The plasmids which can be used for introducing new genes into plant cells are
Answer
C. Ti plasmids
51
Genes from higher organisms may be introduced into microbial cells so that the recipients
become capable of synthesizing foreign proteins which are described as
Answer
C. Heterologous proteins
52
The key factor/s affecting the hyphal morphology in submerged culture are
i. The concentration of spores in the medium
ii. Design of the medium
iii. Shear conditions
iv. Volume of the medium
Select the correct option from the following.
Answer
C. Only i, ii and iii
53
The washout of the inoculum before an adapted culture is established is the main
difficulty in using a
Answer
A. Continuous-enrichment process
54
The SSF bioreactor in which the bed is static or mixed only very infrequently (i.e., once
per day) and air is blown forcefully through the bed is typically referred to as
Answer
B. Packed-bed bioreactor
55
Wine obtained from which one amongst the following is whitish and effervescent liquid,
both of which properties derive from the fact that the fermenting organisms are numerous
and alive when consumed ?
Answer
D. Elaeis guiniensis
56
Who first of all proposed the utilization of microorganisms as one of the solutions to
the oil recovery issue ?
Answer
A. J. W. Beckman in 1926
57
An organic compound when exposed to a two-phase immiscible system, it will dispense
itself between these two phases in a definite ratio called as
Answer
C. Distribution coefficient
58
The efficiency of solid particles as antifoam entities depends mainly on their
i. Hydrophobicity
ii. Shape
iii. Size
iv. Volume
Select the correct option from the following.
Answer
D. Only i, ii and iii
59
‘Porter’ and ‘Stout’ are varieties of
Answer
B. Beer
60
Which one amongst the following is one of the method of enzyme microencapsulation ?
Answer
D. Coacervation
61
Which gene is responsible for Methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus ?
Answer
A. mec A gene
62
An invitro virulence test which is used for the toxigenicity testing of Diphtheria ?
Answer
C. Elek’s gel precipitation test
63
Name the causative agent of diarrhea which is common in persons from developed
countries visiting endemic areas.
Answer
A. ETEC
64
Which of the following is a specific test for syphilis ?
Answer
B. TPHA
65
Which one of the following is a non-neural vaccine for Rabies ?
Answer
D. Purified chick embryo cell vaccine
66
Covid 19 is a
Answer
C. Enveloped RNA virus
67
Which of the following is a non-cultivable fungus ?
Answer
B. Rhinosporidium seeberi
68
Asexual reproductive structures of Zygomycetes are
Answer
A. Sporangiospore
69
Which method of peripheral smear examination is useful for species identification of
Malaria ?
Answer
B. Thin smear
70
Kala azar is transmitted to humans by the bite of
Answer
D. Sand fly
71
A yeast genus commonly found in fresh ground beef, poutry, kefir grains and caco
beans, whose generic name means ‘shining white’
Answer
B. Candida
72
Depression in pH value of meat upon completion of rigor mortis is due to the conversion
of 1% glycogen to
Answer
C. Lactic acid
73
Choose the correct statement.
Answer
D. All of these
74
Which of the following is not a prebiotic ?
Answer
C. Lactose
75
_______ produced during colonic fermentation determine the pH of colonic lumen.
Answer
C. Both
76
12-D concept is related to the probability of survival of __________ in foods.
Answer
A. Clostridium botulinum
77
The presence of __________ in Modified Atmospheric Package (MAP) gases can
reduce the risk of botulism in seafood.
Answer
A. Oxygen
78
The Z value for most of the bacteria ranges between
Answer
D. 5 – 10°C
79
_________ are primary group of organisms involved in sauerkraut fermentation.
Answer
B. Lactic acid bacteria
80
Antimicrobial activity of hydrogen peroxide is attributed to
Answer
C. Both
81
Secondary metabolites are produced during __________ phase of growth.
Answer
B. Stationary
82
Inner surface of bioreactors are coated with __________ to limit wall growth.
Answer
A. Teflon
83
Carbon source that can be used for production of single cell protein
Answer
D. All of these
84
__________ is a technique where modified fermenters up to 100 dm3 are gently stirred
and broth continuously removed from the vessel and passed through stainless steel or
ceramic filter.
Answer
A. Perfusion culture
85
Yeast _________ is one of the commercially important source of lactase.
Answer
D. Klyveromyces lactis
86
________ are used for the circulation of steam and cooling water during the heating
and cooling cycles of sterilization of the fermenter.
Answer
B. Jacket
87
100 pounds of yeast can produce ___________ tonnes of protein within 24 hrs.
Answer
C. 250
88
An optimum temperature above __________ °C is usually preferred for industrially
important micro-organisms as it can reduce cooling cost.
Answer
B. 40
89
Workers in factory that work with amylase are at an increased risk of
Answer
C. Asthma
90
Example for catabolic product resulting from primary metabolism
Answer
C. Lactic acid
91
According to FSSAI regulations double toned milk should have a minimum fat and SNF
of _________ respectively.
Answer
C. 1.5% and 9.0%
92
Early blowing in canned dairy products is due to
Answer
B. Coliforms
93
________ is the chief immunoglobulin in milk and confers passive immunity.
Answer
A. IgA
94
The disappearance of blue colour in milk during MBRT is due to
Answer
C. Both
95
A psychrotrophic bacteria capable of producing thermostable proteases and lipases
causing spoilage in milk
Answer
C. Pseudomonas
96
To reduce the microbial load and to encourage whey protein/casein interaction the milk
for ________ manufacture is severely heated to 95°C for 5 min.
Answer
B. Yoghurt
97
As per FSSAI microbiological requirement for yeast and mold count in pasteurized
butter are m = ________ and M = _________.
Answer
C. 20/g and 50/g
98
The biochemical test used to check aroma producing starter culture based on its ability
to produce acetyl methyl carbinol and diacetyl is
Answer
C. Creatine test
99
Bacillus cereus poisoning is an example for
Answer
B. Toxi infection
100
Rennet causes destabilization of casein micelle to _________ and glycomacropeptide.
Answer
C. Para k-casein
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