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Kerala PSC Mortuary Technician Grade II – Health Services Previous Question Paper – 018/2025/OL

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Post NameMortuary Technician Grade II - Health Services
Question Paper Code018/2025/OL
Category Code132/2024
Date of Test25 February 2025
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
Which is the major source of erythropoietin production in adults ?
Answer
D. Kidney
2
In Chronic myeloid leukemia, the abnormal proliferation of myeloid cells is primarily caused by mutation involving ______ gene.
Answer
B. BCR-ABL 1
3
has
Answer
C. Two alpha and two delta chains
4
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia is characterised by a defect in which of the following receptors ?
Answer
A. Glycoprotein IIb and/or IIIb
5
A patient having mean corpuscular volume is 110f1 is more likely to have
Answer
B. Macrocytic anaemia
6
In a patient with obstructive jaundice which of the following finding is most likely to be observed in the urine ?
Answer
D. Positive for bilirubin but no urobilinogen
7
What is the significance of squamous epithelial cell in a sputum sample ?
Answer
C. Indicates contamination with saliva
8
Benzidine test is used for detecting
Answer
A. Occult blood in stool
9
Which of the following urinary crystal has a "thorn apple" appearance ?
Answer
C. Ammonium biurate
10
Xanthochromia in CSF is indicative of
Answer
A. Subarchnoid haemorrhage
11
An example of nuclear fixative is
Answer
D. Carnoys fluid
12
Microtome best suited for cutting unfixed tissue is
Answer
B. Vibrating microtome
13
A synthetic resin mountant is
Answer
D. DPX
14
In verhoeff's iron haematoxylin staining elastic fibers stains_____
Answer
B. Black
15
The recommended procedure to remove formalin pigment from tissue section is to
Answer
C. Treat with 1% alcoholic solution of sodium hydroxide
16
A differential stain used for hormonal evaluation in vaginal smear is
Answer
A. Shorr's stain
17
Which condition is characterized by the absence of barr body in females ?
Answer
A. Turner syndrome
18
The primary material used for making nucleopore filter is
Answer
D. Polycarbonate
19
Special stain used to demonstrate DNA in cytological and histological specimen is
Answer
C. Feulgen stain
20
Maturation index is typically expressed as a ratio of
Answer
B. Basal cell : intermediate cell : superficial cell
21
Chromosome banding methods are either based on staining chromosomes with a dye or on assaying for a particular function. Which one is wrongly named in the below list ?
Answer
B. R-(Roentgen) banding
22
From the following options, find out the highly sensitive and specific technique, often providing results quicker than traditional karyotyping, especially in cases of subtle chromosomal abnormalities.
Answer
B. FISH
23
Find the odd one.
Answer
B. Turner Syndrome
24
Human chromosomes are grouped based on the position of the centromere on the chromosome. Which statement is wrong among the following ?
Answer
D. None of the above
25
A mitotic inhibitor must be used to obtain adequate numbers of cells in the metaphase. Write the example of mitotic inhibitor used.
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
26
Find the true statement about "Golden Blood Type" from the following i. It is rarest blood type ii. Only the golden blood type can be transfused to them iii. It is "O" Rh negative group iv. It is known as Rh null blood type
Answer
C. i, ii and iv
27
Mother Rh Positive, father Rh Positive and Child Rh negative. Which of the following statement is true ?
Answer
D. Both 1 and 3
28
Major crossmatching is done to
Answer
B. To serve as a check on the accuracy of ABO grouping and Rh typing
29
Most common transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility is
Answer
A. Acute Haemolytic reaction
30
Which storage condition in following is correct ?
Answer
D. FFP : -20°C
31
Which of the following is not Louis Pasteur's discovery ?
Answer
C. All cells originate from pre-existing cells
32
Find the correct one from the following, regarding WHO classification of Risk Groups of microbes. i. Risk Group I is high risk to workers and community and consists of viruses like Smallpox ii. Risk Group III is of moderate risk and comprises bacteria like Streptococci iii. Risk Group IV is high risk to workers and community and comprises viruses like Ebola iv. Risk Group II is low risk to workers and community and comprises food spoilage bacteria
Answer
A. iii only
33
Best method for sterilizing oils and powders
Answer
A. Hot Air Oven
34
Regarding centrifuging in Microbiology lab, the Laboratory staff must not do the following to avoid infection.
Answer
A. On hearing breaking noise switch off the centrifuge and immediately clean it with disinfectant
35
Albert staining technique is done for differentiation of
Answer
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
36
Which light source is not used for fluorescent microscopy ?
Answer
D. None of the above
37
Example of budding bacteria
Answer
A. Hyphomonas polymorpha
38
Peptidoglycan the most important constituent of bacterial cell is otherwise known as
Answer
C. Murein
39
The different techniques for obtaining anaerobic conditions include
Answer
D. All of the above
40
Fever is caused by
Answer
C. Coxiella burnetti
41
In the following which is not a property of transport media ?
Answer
C. Can be used for direct identification of microbes
42
Find the wrong identification tests for Vibrio cholera
Answer
C. Ferment L. arabinose
43
Which of the following diagnostic method is most useful in detecting E.histolytica from stool samples ?
Answer
B. Rapid antigen detection tests
44
Which of the following is commonly used for the transport of stool specimens for parasitological examination ?
Answer
A. Polyvinyl alcohol fixative
45
Wuchereria bancrofti, a causative agent of lymphatic filariasis comes under
Answer
D. Nematode
46
In rapid diagnostic tests for malaria, the most commonly targeted antigen for Plasmodium falciparum is
Answer
C. Pį¶ HRPā‚‚
47
The purpose of using Schaudinn's Stain in parasitology is
Answer
C. To detect protozoan cysts in faecal specimen
48
For diagnosing Schistosoma haematobium infections, the most appropriate time to collect urine is
Answer
B. Mid day
49
Fungal blood cultures are most effectively performed using which automated system ?
Answer
C. BACTEC System
50
The most common fluorescent stain used for identifying fungal elements from clinical specimens is
Answer
D. Calcofluorwhite
51
Which of the following statement about dimorphic fungi is TRUE ?
Answer
B. They grow as yeasts at 37°C and molds at 25°C
52
In fungal diagnosis, what is the significance of using Potato Dextrose agar ?
Answer
D. Enhances sporulation and pigmentation of fungi
53
Immunocompromised persons suffer from several fungal diseases. Which one of the following is not frequently associated ?
Answer
C. Malassezia furfur
54
'Rose gardener's disease' or 'Rose thorn disease', a sub- cutaneous mycosis is caused by
Answer
A. Sporothrix
55
'Negri bodies' are pathognomonic for the viral infection caused by
Answer
C. Rabies
56
In serology, the marker used to monitor the response to treatment in chronic hepatitis B infection is
Answer
C. HBeAg
57
The genome structure of SARS-CoV-2 virus is
Answer
B. Single stranded positive sense RNA
58
Name the virus associated with the development of Burkitt's lymphoma
Answer
A. Epstein-Barr virus
59
Viruses that contain two complete copies of positive strand RNA and the enzyme reverse transcriptase are
Answer
D. Retro viruses
60
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is caused by
Answer
A. Prions
61
The ingredient of chromic acid is
Answer
B. Sulphuric acid
62
While calibrating volumetric glass wares, we use this equation
Answer
A. V=M/D
63
Which one is a primary standard chemical ?
Answer
C. Sodium carbonate
64
All the chemicals are corrossive except
Answer
C. Ethanol
65
Impurities still remain in the distilled water are/is
Answer
B. Volatile substances
66
Serum Creatinine is expressed in this SI unit
Answer
A. Micro moles / Litre
67
0.1 N Hydrochloric Acid is equivalent to _________M HCl.
Answer
C. 0.1
68
To estimate Serum electrolytes, we can collect blood sample in
Answer
B. Lithium heparin
69
While estimating total proteins in urine, 24 hour urine sample is preserved by adding _______of HCl.
Answer
A. 15 to 20 ml
70
Which statement is correct, when complimentary monochromatic light passes through a coloured solution ?
Answer
C. Absoption is maximum
71
The radioactive isotope Tritium undergo Beta decay with a half life of 12.5 years. If we keep 10 grams of pure Tritium sample. How much of it will remain after 25 years ?
Answer
C. 2.5 grams
72
Which is/are not included in the buffer solution ?
Answer
B. Sodium chloride and Hydrochloric acid
73
Find out the reason of decreased anion gap in blood.
Answer
C. Low level of albumin
74
Read carefully statements 1 and 2 below and answer 1. The digestive secretion bile contain cholesterol 2. Some proteins are absorbed unchanged in our body
Answer
B. both are right
75
After lead poisoning, a person experience abdominal pain and neurological problems resembling acute attack of prphyria. The enzyme in porphyrin pathway inhibited by lead is
Answer
B. ALA Dehydratase
76
All the following statements about acute intermittent porphyria are true, except
Answer
C. Cause photosensitivity and cutaneous leison
77
Coenzyme A contain the following vitamin
Answer
B. Pantothenic acid
78
To ensure first order kinetic reaction, which of the following is most suitable ?
Answer
A. The substrate concentration must be low compared to Km
79
What is/are wrong about Isoenzymes ?
Answer
B. Amino acid sequence are same
80
Lactate Dehydrogenase isoenzyme predominantly seen in lungs is
Answer
C. LDH 3
81
Regan isoenzyme is a variant of
Answer
D. Alkaline phosphatase
82
Which of the following is not a hormone of hypothalamus ?
Answer
B. Epinephrine
83
Recombinant DNA technology has been successfully applied to make important proteins used in the treatment of human diseases, like
Answer
A. Insulin
84
The blotting technique used for isolation and study of DNA molecule is
Answer
C. Southern Blotting
85
______is the procedure of collection of synovial fluid.
Answer
B. Arthrocentesis
86
What is the primary cause of uric acid stones ?
Answer
D. Low urinary pH
87
Which of the following reagents is specifically used in the urinary screening test to detect phenylketonuria by identifying excess phenylpyruvic acid in urine ?
Answer
B. Ferric chloride
88
Which of the following techniques is most directly associated with somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) in cloning ?
Answer
A. Replacement of the oocyte nucleus with a somatic cell nucleus
89
Which of the following statements are correct regarding gastric juice ? 1. HCl in gastric juice activates pepsinogen to pepsin 2. The acidity of gastric juice is measured by titration with sodium hydroxide
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
90
The pH used for serum protein electrophoresis in agarose gel is
Answer
B. 8.6
91
In which type of chromatography is an inert gas, such as helium or nitrogen, used as the mobile phase ?
Answer
B. Gas Chromatography
92
What chemical is used for the direct derivatization of amino acids in urine samples ?
Answer
A. Dabsyl chloride
93
What is the primary purpose of a Levey-Jennings chart in quality control ?
Answer
D. To graphically monitor the consistency of laboratory test performance over time
94
What is a key limitation of screening tests in toxicology ?
Answer
C. They may produce false positives
95
Which of the following is not a blood collection method ?
Answer
D. None of the above
96
______applies information technology and software to manage and optimize laboratory operations and data management.
Answer
A. Laboratory informatics
97
We rarely suffer twice from such diseases as measles, mumps, chickenpox and whooping cough due to______
Answer
C. Immunological memory
98
_____is a fundamental tool of clinical immunology and is used as an initial screen for HIV detection.
Answer
B. ELISA
99
High levels of GGT in your blood may be a sign of______ disease.
Answer
D. Liver
100
One disadvantage of sequencial multiple analyser is_____
Answer
A. Only 6 to 12 fixed test determinations can be done per hour

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