| Post Name | Motor Transport Sub inspector (Trainee) - Police Motor Transport Wing |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 010/2020/OL |
| Category Code | 013/2016 |
| Date of Test | 4 September 2020 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following is an output device?
Answer
D. Speakers
2
What is MICR?
Answer
A. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
3
What is the binary representation of decimal number 12?
Answer
B. 1100
4
Which of the following is not a key property of a transaction carried out in a database system?
Answer
C. Information
5
Which type of software is used for creating slide shows?
Answer
C. Presentation software
6
Which of the following lets a computer communicate with variety of musical instruments?
Answer
A. MIDI
7
An attack that tries to ļ¬ood a computer resource with more requests than it can handle is known as ___________
Answer
D. DoS Attack
8
Malicious software that pose as legitimate programs or ļ¬les that user may recognize and want to use are known as ___________
Answer
A. Trojan
9
Which of the following is a Certifying Authority to issue Digital Signature Certiļ¬cates in India?
Answer
B. Safescrypt
10
The information Technology Act was made eļ¬ective from __________
Answer
D. 17 October 2000
11
In which place in Kerala the institute of Driver Training and Research situated?
Answer
B. Edappal
12
What is the ļ¬ne imposed for vehicles conducting service without valid insurance certiļ¬cate?
Answer
D. Rs. 2,000
13
Validity of Temporary registration certiļ¬cate of new vehicles.
Answer
A. 30 days
14
Function of EGR valve is to reduce ________
Answer
B. Emission
15
The term used to indicate the distance between the centre lines of the front and rear axles of a vehicle is called:
Answer
B. Wheel base
16
What type of registration number plates are used in Electric transport vehicles?
Answer
D. Yellow lettering in Green background
17
M.A.C.T. deal with ____________
Answer
C. Accident claim
18
When the horn button is preseed the current ļ¬ows to horn through:
Answer
B. Horn relay
19
What is the speed limit of a motor car in state highways?
Answer
B. 80 km/hr
20
Over speeding in vehicles, violation of section ___________ of MV Act 1988 and rules made there under?
Answer
C. 112
21
In arc welding the temperature of heat produced by the electric arc is of the orderof
Answer
D. 6000ĀŗC to 7000ĀŗC
22
The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air, is called
Answer
A. wet bulb temperature
23
The ratio of heat extracted in the refrigerator to the workdone on the refrigerant is called
Answer
A. Coeļ¬cient of performance of refrigeration
24
A centrifugal pump will start delivering liquid only when the presure rise in the impeller is equal to the
Answer
C. manometric head
25
Internal gears can be made up
Answer
B. shaping with pinion cutter
26
A water tank contain 1.3 m deep water. The pressure eexerted by the water per metre length of the tank is
Answer
B. 8.29 kN
27
Carburising ļ¬ame is used to weld
Answer
C. hard surfacing materials such as satellite
28
Shock resisting steels should have
Answer
D. toughness
29
An eutectoid steel consists of
Answer
A. Wholly pearlite
30
Side rake angles of a single point cutting tool is the angle
Answer
B. by which the face of the tool is inclined sideways
31
The percentage of carbon in cast iron varies from
Answer
D. 1.7 to 4.5
32
Static friction is always ___________ dynamic friction
Answer
C. Greater than
33
Strian energy is the
Answer
A. Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
34
Euler's formula holds good only for
Answer
B. long columns
35
A body is subject to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at right angle to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The maximum normal stress will be
Answer
D. 1400 MPa
36
Smelting is the process of
Answer
C. reducing the ore with carbon in the presence of a ļ¬ux
37
One litre of water occupies a volume of
Answer
D. 1000 šš 3
38
In reaction turbine, draft tube is used.
Answer
B. To convert the kinetic energy to ļ¬ow energy by a gradual Expansion of the ļ¬ow cross-section
39
A four -cylinder engine has a capacity of 2.4 litres. The swept volume of one cylinder is
Answer
B. 600 šš 3
40
Coeļ¬cient of contraction is the ratio of
Answer
D. area of jet at vena contracta to the area of oriļ¬ce
41
Which of the following is a not a surface ļ¬nishing process?
Answer
C. Turning
42
The process of increasing the cross-section of a bar at the expense of its length, is called
Answer
C. Upsetting
43
The mechanical eļ¬ciency of an impulse turbine is
Answer
B. ratio of the actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel
44
The process of beveling sharp ends of a workpiece is called as ___________
Answer
D. Chamfering
45
What is meant by drag in casting process?
Answer
C. Lower part of casting ļ¬ask
46
A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known as
Answer
A. Diesel cycle
47
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at constant volume, is called
Answer
A. Speciļ¬c heat at constant volume
48
An adiabatic process is one in which
Answer
D. all of the above
49
The compression ratio for petrol engine is
Answer
B. 5 to 8
50
In a glass tube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water space and the other end is connected to
Answer
C. steam space
51
In a 4 cylinder engine, the swept volume of all the cylinder are called,
Answer
C. Engine Capacity
52
Ovality and Taperness are measured for
Answer
B. Engine cylinders
53
Anti-freezing solution is employed as
Answer
A. Coolant material
54
Pump and injector are combined into single unit in the case of __________ system.
Answer
A. Unit injector
55
Closing of a value after TDC or BDC is called
Answer
D. Valve lag
56
Plastiguage is employed to measure
Answer
B. Bearing clearence
57
Main purpose of Harmonic Balancer is to control
Answer
D. Torsional vibrations
58
Which among the following is not a part of crank shaft?
Answer
A. Shank
59
Rapid movement of air from the cylinder walls to cylinder centre occuring, as the piston moves upward during compression stroke, is called
Answer
B. Squish
60
Which among the following is not used in catalytic converter?
Answer
B. Chromium
61
In Hotchkiss drive, torque reaction is taken by
Answer
C. Springs
62
Release bearing in a clutch Assembly is also known as
Answer
C. Throw-out bearing
63
To sustain a steady speed under varying road condition, thus allowing vehicle driver to relax from constant foot throttle manipulation is called
Answer
A. Cruise control
64
Paddle shift is employed in ____________ type gearbox.
Answer
D. Sequential
65
"Fading" is a complaint related to
Answer
A. Brakes
66
"Shackle" is a part of
Answer
C. Leaf spring assembly
67
A S.I engine continues to run for a very small period of time, even after ignition key is switched oļ¬. This phenomenon is called
Answer
C. Dieseling
68
Dimmer switch is a part of _________ circuit.
Answer
B. Head lamp
69
Anti-dazzle devices are employed in ____________ system.
Answer
C. Head Lamp
70
The ballast resistor in ignition system serves the following function.
Answer
Question Cancelled
71
Length of the threaded portion of the spark plug is called
Answer
C. Reach
72
The purpose of over running clutch in a starter motor drive is to
Answer
D. Avoid damage to motor
73
Steering Wander is called when _________ occurs.
Answer
Question Cancelled
74
The angle between wheel axis to the vertical line, when viewing from the front of the vehicle is called
Answer
B. Camber angle
75
Brake chamber in a Air brake system is used for
Answer
A. Actuating the cam
76
The component which reduces the tendency of the vehicle to roll on either side, when taking a turn, is called
Answer
D. Stabilizer bar
77
The angle between the direction of motion of vehicle and the centre plane of tyre is known as
Answer
B. slip angle
78
Plumb line method is using for checking the defects in
Answer
D. chassis frame
79
Pick out the one which is not a type of stub axle.
Answer
A. Elliptical
80
Ply rating in tyres indictes
Answer
D. Relative tyre strength
81
Any motor vehicle constructed to carry more than 6 persons excluding the driver is called
Answer
C. Omni bus
82
"Attraction" of a trip, when the vehicle is travelling is the
Answer
C. zones of destinations
83
The inward transverse inclination provided to the cross section of a carriage-way on horizontal curved portion of a road is
Answer
B. Super Elevation
84
The validity of certiļ¬cate of ļ¬tness of a private car in India, for the ļ¬rst time is
Answer
A. 15 years
85
An alternate mode of ļ¬exible passenger transportation that does not follow ļ¬xed routes and schedules is called
Answer
C. Para transit
86
A bus route, which has starting and terminating point is same, is called
Answer
D. Ring route
87
A document which include statistical trip record and trip sheet in a bus operation is called
Answer
A. Way bill
88
The Yaw rate sensor in electronic stability control measures
Answer
Question Cancelled
89
White smoke from Diesel Engine arises due to
Answer
B. Low operating temperature
90
"CRDI" is related to
Answer
B. Fuel system
91
Article 360 of the Indian Constitution deals with?
Answer
C. Financial Emergency
92
Which of the following statements are true with Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Indian Constitution? 1. It incorporated into the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 2. Ten Fundamental Duties were included by the 42nd Amendment Act 3. The 11th Fundamental Duty was incorporated by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer
D. 1,2 and 3
93
In the case of death of the vice-president, the national ļ¬ag shall be half-masted:
Answer
A. Throughout the country
94
Which of the following statement is/are not true about the status of Governor of a state in India?
Answer
D. The oļ¬ce of governor of a state is an employment under the Central Government
95
Choose the false statement among the following statements:
Answer
B. Article 44, to protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance
96
The constituent Assembly of India was step up under the framework of?
Answer
A. Cabinet mission
97
Choose the wrong statement among the following statements:
Answer
B. Constituent Assembly adopted the national ļ¬ag on July 22, 1953
98
___________ is India's highest military decoration, awarded for displaying distinguished acts of valour during wartime
Answer
B. The Param Vir Chakra
99
With reference to the powers of Prime Minister which following is/are true?
Answer
D. All of the above
100
The maximum membership of Rajya Sabha is limited to
Answer
A. 250
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