| Post Name | NON VOCATIONAL TEACHER COMMERCE (Senior) - KVHSE |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 082/2023 |
| Category Code | 399/2022, 579/2022, 581/2022, 607/2022 |
| Date of Test | 21 June 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The annual census carried out by the Government of India is an example of:
Answer
C. Descriptive Research
2
––––––––––– is a temporal occurrence which follows the independent variable and precedes
the dependent variable :
Answer
B. Intervening variable
3
A ––––––––––– design is employed to measure the effect of two or more independent
variables at various levels:
Answer
A. Factorial
4
The numbers assigned in a ––––––––––– scale cannot be added, subtracted, multiplied or
divided :
Answer
B. Nominal
5
––––––––––– sampling is used when it is difficult to identify the members of the desired
population. :
Answer
C. Snowball
6
Which of the following assumptions holds good for a parametric test?
Answer
D. All of the above
7
The practice of changing or omission of research results
Answer
B. Falsification
8
The major components that comprise of the Indian financial system are:
Answer
D. All of the above
9
The treasury bills are sold by:
Answer
A. Central bank
10
Shares issued to ensure more loyalty and participation of employees is called:
Answer
B. Sweat equity
11
Who is a cautious speculator?
Answer
C. Stag
12
The instrument which helps commercial banks to meet the Cash Reserve Ratio is:
Answer
B. Call and short notice money
13
––––––––––– are referred as rule of thumb, which applies in decision making to reduce the
cognitive resources to solve a problem :
Answer
B. Heuristics
14
The propensity of individuals to hold on to their losing stocks while selling their winning
stocks early:
Answer
C. Disposition effect
15
Under the Markowitz approach, the important variable(s) used to determine efficient set of
portfolios for investors are:
Answer
D. All of the above
16
The Corner portfolio provides an analysis of:
Answer
D. Risk and Return
17
In which of the following model(s), the return of a security or portfolio is a linear function of
the market return and this is represented by market indices?
Answer
B. Sharpe Single Index Model
18
––––––––––– determines the risk factor of Security Market Line :
Answer
B. Beta coefficient
19
––––––––––– is a combination of one call option and one put option with different exercise
prices, but with the same expiration date :
Answer
A. Strangle
20
Equity swaps are entered to:
Answer
D. All of the above
21
––––––––––– is an agreement between two parties to exchange a series of cash flows over a
period in the future :
Answer
A. Swaps
22
Who is entitled to relief for award made by the government in public interest?
Answer
C. All assesses
23
Residential status is determined for:
Answer
B. Previous year
24
––––––––––– is the highest administrative authority for income tax in India :
Answer
B. CBDT
25
Income from house property is exempted from tax under ––––––––––– of Income Tax Act
1961 :
Answer
C. Section 10
26
The authority to levy and collect IGST is:
Answer
C. Central government
27
A registered person shall pay GST of a month:
Answer
D. on 20th of next month
28
X is appointed by a company in Delhi for a package of Rs.7,00,000 pa. which includes Basic
Salary Rs.3,00,000 ,Transportation allowance Rs. 20,000, Deposit in approved Gratuity
Rs. 21,000, Reimbursement of Medical expenses Rs. 15,000, House Rent Allowance
Rs. 1,44,000, Special Allowance Rs. 2,00,000. Employee paid professional tax of Rs. 200 p.m.
and house rent Rs. 15,000 p.m. What is his taxable income from salary for the assessment
year 2022-23?
Answer
B. 4,82,600
29
When actual loss in the process is greater than the estimated normal loss, it is the case of:
Answer
A. Abnormal process loss
30
––––––––––– refers to the amount by which sales revenue can fall before a loss is incurred. :
Answer
B. Margin of safety
31
A technique used for business decision making based on 80/20 rule:
Answer
B. Pareto analysis
32
For ascertainment of cost of materials purchased, which of the following is deducted?
Answer
D. Trade discount and quantity discount
33
––––––––––– is that part of production which does not meet the dimensional or quality
standard :
Answer
B. Spoilage
34
Under ABC analysis, materials are classified on the basis of:
Answer
C. Value of materials
35
––––––––––– is that part of material cost variance which is due to the difference between
standard quantity and actual quantity used :
Answer
B. Material usage variance
36
Non-controlling interest is equal to:
Answer
C. Paid up value of shares held by outsiders in the subsidiary company plus
proportionate share in reserves and surplus, and increase in the value of assets of
the subsidiary company belongs to outsiders
37
While solving a problem of corporate restructuring, if the question gives you information to
compute consideration under net payment method, net asset method, lumpsum method and
share exchange method. Which method do you apply to compute purchase consideration?
Answer
D. Net payment method
38
The “insolvency resolution process costs” means:
(i) the amount of any interim finance and the costs incurred in raising such finance
(ii) the fees payable to any person acting as a resolution professional
(iii) any costs incurred by the resolution professional in running the business of the
corporate debtor as a going concern
(iv) any costs incurred at the expense of the Government to facilitate the insolvency
resolution process
Answer
D. All of the above
39
Which of the following statements are true about external reconstruction:
(i) Company losses its identity
(ii) Overvalued assets are revalued at their net worth and the losses are written off
(iii) A new company is formed in place of the old company
(iv) Debenture holders and creditors will have to be settled
Answer
C. Only (i) , (iii) and (iv)
40
State the order of payment in the liquidation of companies:
(i) Preferential creditors
(ii) Expenses of winding up
(iii) Creditors secured by a floating charge on assets
(iv) Unsecured creditors
Answer
A. (ii), (iii), (i) and (iv)
41
Hermanson model of valuation of human resource assets is used in:
Answer
B. Present value method
42
Which approach in social responsibility accounting states “by maximizing the profits within
the constraints of existing legal and ethical framework, business corporations are acting in
the best interest of the society at large”:
Answer
D. Classical Approach
43
“The Companies establish a foreign subsidiary and empower its executives”. This statement
is true for:
Answer
A. Polycentric Approach
44
The significant features of TRIMs include:
(i) Participation of foreign equity should be allowed up to 100%
(ii) Export of the part of the final product will not be mandatory
(iii) Granting of permission without restriction to import raw materials and other
components
(iv) Phased manufacturing programme will be introduced to increase the domestic content
of manufacture
Answer
D. All of the above
45
The exchange rate is determined based on the interaction of real income, interest rates, risk,
price level and wealth. This statement stands for which theory of exchange rate behaviour:
Answer
C. Portfolio balance approach
46
Which of the following is not the funding objective of IBRD?
Answer
B. To provide short-term assistance to correct the balance of payments
disequilibrium of member countries
47
Japan sells its electronic products at a high price in Japan and sells the same product
consistently at lower prices in the USA and India. Identify the type of dumping:
Answer
D. Persistent dumping
48
This option can be exercised only on the exercise date:
Answer
C. European option
49
Which among the following is the best example of international cartels?
Answer
A. OPEC
50
Under McKinsey 7-S framework for organizational effectiveness, the hard elements are:
Answer
C. Strategy. structure and systems
51
“There cannot be a particular management action which will be suitable for all situations”
This quotation is the basic idea of :
Answer
D. Contingency approach
52
Which of the following statement is not true about strategy?
Answer
D. It indicates the destination
53
According to Herzberg’s motivation-hygiene theory, which one of the following is a motivating
factor?
Answer
A. Work itself
54
Managerial grid has been developed by:
Answer
C. Blake and Mouton
55
Internal failure cost does not include:
Answer
D. customer service costs
56
One who finishes the work well ahead of schedule, but fails to take his group’s needs into
account is known as:
Answer
A. Preemptive
57
The arguments of stakeholder theory are based upon:
Answer
B. Social contract theory
58
The gatekeepers of corporate governance in India are :
(i) SEBI
(ii) RBI
(iii) Auditors
(iv) Board of Directors
Answer
Question Cancelled
59
Identify the argument against the social responsibility of business :
Answer
D. Too much power
60
The Companies Act has placed the following disabilities on the directors :
(i) Any provision in the Articles which exempts a director from any liability on account of
any negligence, default, misfeasance, breach of duty or breach of trust.
(ii) An undischarged insolvent.
(iii) Holding directorship in more than 15 companies.
(iv) A company, without obtaining the previous approval of the central government make
any loan to the director.
Answer
D. All of the above
A 11 082/2023
61
Where the chairman of the board is a non-executive director but is related to any promoter,
the proportion of independent directors to be included in the board as per Companies Act
2013 :
Answer
B. atleast 1/2
62
Which of the following statement is not true about the audit committee as per Clause 49?
Answer
C. One-Third of the members of the audit committee shall be independent directors
63
According to M. Rokeach’s types of values, which one of the following is a terminal value?
Answer
A. Comfortable life
64
Which of the following statement is not true about the profitability index?
Answer
C. If the profitability index is equal to one, then the net present value will be equal
to one
65
“Permanent working capital requirements should be financed by long-term funds and
temporary working capital requirements should be financed out of short-term funds” Identify
the approach :
Answer
A. Hedging approach
66
Optimum capital structure is determined by taking into consideration :
(i) Financial leverage
(ii) Cost of capital
(iii) Value of the firm
Answer
D. All of the above
082/2023 12 A
67
Which theory of dividend states “dividends are irrelevant to shareholders wealth”?
Answer
C. Modigliani and Miller dividend theory
68
A highly geared company exposes to :
Answer
B. Financial risk
69
The salient features of a financial lease are :
(i) It is an intermediate to the long-term non-cancellable arrangement
(ii) The lessee is responsible for maintenance, insurance and taxes
(iii) The lease is not fully amortized during the primary lease period
(iv) The lessee usually enjoys the option of renewing the lease for further periods for very
nominal lease rentals
Answer
A. Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
70
Wealth maximization objective stands for
Answer
C. Maximizing the market value of equity share
71
Which of the following reflects the nature of teaching?
Answer
D. Both
72
What does a Curriculum include?
Answer
D. All the above
73
The Evaluation system that is used to identify the scope and potential for improvement
Answer
B. Formative
74
The effectiveness of teaching is evaluated in terms of :
Answer
A. Learning Outcome
75
The Theory of learning that provides support for active learner’s participation in the
interactional setting with intrinsic motivation :
Answer
C. Constructivist theory
76
Research carried on several time periods :
Answer
C. Longitudinal
77
A research design should provide detailed information about :
(i) The ethical issues
(ii) The data collection methods
(iii) The study population
Answer
D. All of the above
78
Which of the following is one of the major ethical problems in research?
Answer
A. Breach of confidentiality
79
The research process is outlined in the research proposal, so that the ____________ and
appropriateness can be examined by others :
Answer
B. Validity
80
The abbreviation ‘ibid’, often used in bibliographies refer to :
Answer
A. in the same place
81
Which of the following statement is/are incorrect regarding the Environment Protection Act,
1986?
(i) The Act empowers the central government or its officers to take for the purpose of
analysis, samples of air, water, soil or other substances from any premise, factory and
so on as maybe prescribed.
(ii) The Act empowers the exclusive power to prosecute under Indian environmental laws
to the government.
(iii) The Act prescribes punishment with imprisonment or fine or both for the violators.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
82
Which of the following Directive Principles can be described as liberal democratic in
character?
(i) To make provision for securing the right to work, to education and public assistance in
cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement and in other cases of
undeserved want.
Answer
D. None of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
83
Which of the following statement is/are true regarding the provisions for resolving deadlock
between two houses of the State Legislature regarding Bills other than money bills?
(i) By a joint sitting of the two houses of the state legislature.
(ii) The will of the upper house shall prevail ultimately.
(iii) The will of the lower house shall prevail ultimately.
Answer
C. Only (iii)
84
Which of the following statement is/are incorrect regarding the circumstances under which
the Governor cannot promulgate an ordinance without the prior sanction of the president?
(i) If a bill containing the same provisions would require the prior sanction of the
president before it is introduced.
(ii) If he would have deemed necessary to reserve a bill containing the same provisions for
the consideration of the president.
(iii) If an act under the same provisions would have been reserved for the consideration of
the president and require his assent.
Answer
D. None of the above (i), (ii), (iii)
A 15 082/2023
85
Which one of the following amendment Act provided for the establishment of a National
Commission for Scheduled caste and Scheduled tribes?
Answer
C. The Constitution (65th Amendment) Act, 1990
86
Which of the following features is/are correct regarding Right to Equality in Indian
Constitution?
(i) It ensures equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(ii) It prohibits special treatment of any section of society including Scheduled Caste and
Scheduled Tribes.
(iii) It abolishes titles other than academic and military.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
87
Which one of the following committees makes recommendations to the President of India
regarding the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner and Information
Commissioners of the Central Information Commission?
Answer
A. The Committee consisting of the Prime Minister of India, the leader of opposition
in Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
88
Which of the following statement is/are incorrect regarding the powers of National Human
Rights Commission?
(i) It enjoys judicial powers to punish the offenders.
(ii) National Human Rights Commission receive financial assistance from the central
Government.
(iii) National Human Rights Commission investigates cases of human rights violations
conducted by armed forces in the country.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
89
Which of the following procedures is/are correct regarding the procedure for the passing of
Money Bills In Parliament?
(i) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
(ii) The Council of States cannot reject Money Bill but it can amend it.
(iii) The Council of States must return the Money Bill within a period of 14 days from the
date of receipt of the Bill with or without recommendation.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
90
Which of the following statement is/are true regarding the total number of members of the
Union Public Service Commission?
(i) The Constitution itself specifies the number of members of the Union Public Service
Commission.
(ii) The President is empowered to determine the number of members of the Union Public
commission.
(iii) The Parliament is empowered to determine the number of members of the Union Public
Service Commission.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
91
Who were the leaders of Vaala Samudaya Parishkarani Sabha?:
(i) Panditkaruppan
(ii) N. Krishnan
(iii) V.V. Velukkutti Arayan
(iv) Rao Bahadur Govindan
Answer
C. All of the above (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
92
Who led the march, popularly known as savarnajatha in 1925 in Vaikam Sathyagraha?
Answer
A. Mannath Pathmanabhan
93
The famous Janamma and others case is connected with which of the following religious sect?
Answer
C. Prathyaksha Raksha Daiva Sabha
94
Which of the following organization supported the Rationalist movement of Kerala?
Answer
A. Sahodara Sangham
95
Identify the newspapers which spread the messages of Sree Narayana Guru?
(i) Sujanandini
(ii) Keralakaumudi
(iii) Yoganadam
(iv) Deepika
Answer
D. Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
96
Among the following which women leaders violated caste restrictions among the Brahmins :
(i) Aryapallam
(ii) Parvathy Nenmenimangalam
(iii) Lalitha Prabhu
(iv) Lalithambika Antharjanam
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
97
Kavibharatam was written by whom?
Answer
A. Kodungallur Kunjikuttan Thampuran
98
Which among the following drama Kerala People’s Arts club staged firstly in 1951?
Answer
B. Ente Makananu Sari
99
Puthuvayalil Narayanan Panicker is connected with which of the movements of Kerala?
Answer
A. Library Movement
100
Kannadi, the famous novel written by P. Kesavadev received inspiration from which world
literature?
Answer
B. Russian literature
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