| Post Name | NON VOCATIONAL TEACHER (JUNIOR) ECONOMICS - KERALA VHSE |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 087/2023 |
| Category Code | 590/2022 |
| Date of Test | 23 June 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Of the following which is True?
Answer
B. Given any one utility function, any monotonic transformation of it will represent
the same preferences
2
Which of the following is True in the case of Bertrand Competition?
Answer
C. Firms set their prices and market determines the quantity
3
The demand theory applicable to situations involving measurable risk has been developed by :
Answer
A. Neumann-Morgenstern
4
The following statements relate to the P.W.S Andrews’ critique of the Chamberlin’s model of
Monopolistic Competition. Which of the following statements is/are Not True?
(i) Chamberlin’s demand curve implies irrationality of consumer’s preferences in the long
run
(ii) Chamberlin’s demand curve is applicable only for those rare cases where a firm sells
directly to the final consumer, and this only in a short-run analysis.
(iii) Chamberlin’s demand curve ignores the bulk of the final demand transactions carried
out by retailers and wholesalers
(iv) The part of the demand for a product arising from retailers and wholesalers cannot give
rise to a downward-falling demand curve.
Answer
D. None of these
A 3
5
Match list 1 with list 2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List 1 List 2
Answer
C. Small Group model (3) R. Stone
6
Consider the following examples:
(i) A case where senior citizens are offered a product at discounts
(ii) A case where prices are set by bargaining, as in antique markets
(iii) A case where bulk discounts are available for large purchases
If we arrange the above examples in the ascending order of Price discrimination say
First Degree, Second Degree and Third Degree, which of the following sequences would
be correct:
Answer
C. Only (ii)-First Degree, (iii)-Second Degree, (i)-Third Degree
7
Which of the following is/are True?
(i) The risk-averse consumer has a concave utility function
(ii) The risk-loving consumer has a concave utility function
(iii) The risk-averse consumer has a convex utility function
(iv) The risk-loving consumer has a convex utility function
(v) The risk-neutral consumer has a linear utility function
Answer
A. Only (i), (iv) and (v)
8
Of the following statements which is/are not true in the case of Stackelberg’s model of
Duopoly?
(i) The Stackelberg’s model is not applicable in a market in which the firms behave on
Bertrand’s assumption.
(ii) If only one firm is sophisticated, market equilibrium will turn out to be unstable.
(iii) If both firms are sophisticated, the situation may lead to Stackleberg’s disequilibrium.
(iv) Collusive agreement may take the duopolists to a point off the Edgeworth Contract
Curve.
Answer
B. Only (ii), (iv)
9
Which of the following is/are True in the case of ‘product exhaustion’ theorems?
(i) Euler’s Theorem does no hold good in the cases where production functions exhibit
constant returns to scale.
(ii) Euler’s Theorem holds good in cases where the productions functions are linear
homogeneous.
(iii) Clark, Wicksteed and Walras show that for the fulfilment of the postulates of marginal
productivity theory the assumption of homogenous production function is necessary.
(iv) Clark, Wicksteed and Walras argument in the above case is applicable only in the long
run.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iv)
10
Match list 1 with list 2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List 1 List 2
Answer
D. Sheepskin Effect (4) Hidden Action Problem
11
The equilibrium is said to be unstable when :
Answer
A. The demand function cuts the supply function from below
12
Marginal Conditions of Pareto Optimality or Pareto Efficiency are :
(i) Efficient combination of Products
(ii) Efficient allocation of Resources among firms
(iii) Efficient distribution of commodities between consumers.
Answer
D. All the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
13
Average Cost-Pricing models have been developed by:
(i) P.W.S Andrews
(ii) R. Barback
(iii) H.R. Edwards
(iv) R. Hall and C. Hitch
Answer
D. All the above (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
14
Based on the data given below, estimate the desired price using ‘Mark-Up’ Rule:
(i) Total Fixed Cost: $ 100
(ii) Average Variable Cost: $30
(iii) Net Profit Margin: $10
(iv) Panned Output: 20
Answer
B. $ 45
15
In Sylos’s model the determinants of the entry-preventing Price are:
(i) The prices of factors of production, which, together with the technology, determine the
total average cost of the firms.
(ii) The role of government, subsidies and indirect taxes
(iii) The elasticity of market demand
(iv) The absolute size of the market
Answer
B. Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
16
In Baumol’s theory of Sales Revenue Maximization
Answer
A. single product model without
advertising), the imposition of a lump-sum tax will:
17
Which of the following is/are true in the case of Marris’s Model of the Managerial Enterprise?
(i) Firm grows only by diversification. Growth by merger or take-over is excluded from this
model.
(ii) The rate of growth of capital is determined by the average rate of profit and the
diversification rate.
(iii) The rate of growth demand for the products of the firm depends on the diversification
rate and the percentage of successful new products.
(iv) The managers aim the maximization of their own utility.
Answer
D. All the above (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
18
In O. Williamson’s Model of Managerial Discretion, the managerial indifference curve shows:
Answer
A. Various combinations of staff expenditure and discretionary profit which give the
same satisfaction to the managers
19
The contradictory and inconsistent results of Kaldor-Hicks criterion in welfare economics was
firstly pointed out by:
Answer
D. Scitovsky
20
Which are the features of the Bergson-Samuelson social welfare function?
(i) It is based on explicit value judgement and involves interpersonal comparisons of utility
in cardinal terms
(ii) It enables us to find a unique optimum solution (when used along with Pareto
Optimality analysis) which combines economic efficiency with distributive justice.
(iii) The maximization technique is used to obtain the maximum social welfare function at
which allocation of resources is Pareto optimum.
(iv) It is based on explicit value judgements and involves interpersonal comparisons of
utility in ordinal terms.
Answer
C. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
21
Which statements are true in IS-LM Keynesian analysis? (i) CA=0 shifts right when autonomous exports decrease; (ii) CA=0 shifts right when autonomous exports increase; (iii) with Marshall-Lerner, devaluation shifts it right; (iv) with Marshall-Lerner, revaluation shifts it left.
Answer
D. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
22
The terms ‘outside’ and ‘inside’ money were introduced by :
Answer
A. Gurley and Shaw
23
Which of the following is/are True in the case of demand for money?
(i) The demand for money is interest inelastic
(ii) The demand for money is Income elastic.
(iii) The demand for money is interest elastic.
(iv) The demand for money varies indirectly with income and directly with interest rate.
(v) The demand for money varies directly with income and indirectly with interest rate.
Answer
D. Only (ii), (iii) and (v)
24
In the intertemporal choice of consumption that originated in the work of Irvin Fisher, the
households’ wealth is:
Answer
D. The present value of future income from both human and non-human resources
25
Transitory Positive income arises when :
Answer
B. Measured Income exceeds Permanent Income
26
The size of fiscal policy multiplier will be larger if :
(i) Less interest elastic is the demand for money
(ii) More interest elastic is the demand for money
(iii) Less Interest elastic is the demand for investment goods
(iv) More interest elastic is the demand for investment goods
Answer
A. Only (ii) and (iii)
27
Which of the following statements is/are correct in the case of an Open-economy Keynesian
model under a fixed exchange rate system?
(i) In this model, the government does not allow money supply to adjust to the demand for
money as money supply is exogenously determined.
(ii) In this model, the government allows the money supply to adjust to the demand for
money.
(iii) Any change in exports will shift the IS curve leading to an increase in income only if
interest rate remains unchanged.
(iv) Any change in exports will cause income to rise if interest rate varies in accordance
with the movement in other variables.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
28
An increase in net wealth due only to a net increase in the real value of the money supply is
known as:
Answer
C. Real Balance Effect
29
Which statements are true for BOF=0 in an open-economy model? (i) Marshall-Lerner holds and domestic prices adjust completely; (ii) depreciation (appreciation) shifts it right (left); (iii) Marshall-Lerner holds and domestic prices do not adjust completely; (iv) appreciation (depreciation) shifts it left (right).
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
30
Real interest rate is:
Answer
B. Nominal interest rate minus the rate of inflation
31
Adaptive Expectation concludes that:
(i) There is long-run trade-off between unemployment and a steady rate of inflation
(ii) A short-run trade-off does not exist as unemployment falls when inflation accelerates
(iii) There is no long-run trade-off between unemployment and a steady rate of inflation
(iv) A short-run trade-off exists as unemployment falls when inflation accelerates
Answer
A. Only (iii) and (iv)
32
In the explanation of Dual Decision Hypothesis:
(i) The income is considered as an endogenous variable and the household’s notional
consumption function is a function of the real wage rate.
(ii) The optimal choice will occur at the consumption level and labour hours for which the
marginal rate of substitution of consumption for leisure equals the nominal wage rate
(iii) The income is considered as an exogenous variable and the household’s notional
consumption function is a function of the real wage rate.
(iv) The optimal choice will occur at the consumption level and labour hours for which the
marginal rate of substitution of consumption for leisure equals the real wage rate.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iv)
33
Repressed Inflation in Labour Market is a case where:
Answer
C. Money wage does not rise in response to excess demand for labour
34
In Lucas Labour supply function, the supply of labour in the current period is a function of:
Answer
D. The ratio of real wage rate in the current period to the normal expected real
wage rate.
A 11 087/2023
35
Laffer Curve suggests that:
Answer
B. Raising tax rate up to a limit increases revenue, but beyond a limit it decreases
tax revenue.
36
The most distinguishing feature of Kaldor’s approach to Modern Trade Cycle theory is:
Answer
C. The use of non-linear investment function in the explanation of trade cycle
37
Of the following, which is/are True in the case both monetary and fiscal policy:
(i) Fiscal policy is highly effective under fixed exchange rates with complete capital
mobility.
(ii) Monetary Policy is highly effective under floating exchange rates.
(iii) Fiscal Policy is highly effective under floating exchange rate with complete capital
mobility.
(iv) Monetary Policy is highly effective under floating exchange rates.
Answer
Question Cancelled
38
Which of the following is/are True in the case of Behavioural Model of Money Supply
Determination?
(i) The Banking industry’s marginal cost curve rises because of the higher interest rate
needed to lower the non-bank public’s currency-deposit ratio.
(ii) The avenge revenue from bank deposit creation increases for the banking industry as a
whole as deposits are expanded.
(iii) A competitive banking industry will expand deposits up to the level at which average
revenue equal the marginal cost.
(iv) A profit-maximising monopoly banking industry will equate marginal revenue with
marginal costs and will charge lower loan rate and provide a higher deposit rate than
would a competitive banking industry.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (iii)
39
The theoretical significance of the Pigou effect is that:
Answer
C. It ensures that a model in which both the price level and money wage rate are
flexible will have a static equilibrium market-clearing solution.
40
If the high powered money (H) rises at the rate of 8 percent and the value of money
multiplier is 3, what would be the rate of total money supply growth?
Answer
B. 24 percent
41
Which of the following statement is/are correct about National Education policy 2020?
(i) NEP recommended for setting up National Research Foundation
(ii) Curricular framework will be 5+3+3+2 system
(iii) It aims to increase GER in higher education to 50%
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iii)
42
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Special Economic Zones (SEZs)?
(i) It promotes exports of goods and services
(ii) It creates employment opportunities along with development of infrastructure facilities
(iii) All laws of India are applicable in SEZs
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
43
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Fiscal deficit of India?
(i) The target of FRBM Act is to limit fiscal deficit up to 3.5% of GDP by 31st March 2021
(ii) The fiscal deficit fort the year 2022-23 is estimated at 6.4%
(iii) The current target of fiscal deficit is 4.5% of GDP by 2025-26
Answer
A. Only (ii) and (iii)
44
Which of the following notation is/are correct in regression formula Y = a + bX
(i) Y = Dependent variable
(ii) a = slope co-efficient
(iii) b = intercept
(iv) X = Independent variable
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iv)
45
Which of the following statement is/are correct about measures of central tendency?
(i) Median is a positional average
(ii) Arithmetic mean is affected by extreme values
(iii) Mode is used for the measurement of qualitative variables
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
46
Grameen Bhandaran Yojana confined to
Answer
B. Construction, renovation and expansion of rural go downs
47
Petroleum product pricing in India is determined by
Answer
Question Cancelled
48
Which of the following statement is/are not correct about Exchange Rate?
(i) Depreciation of a country’s currency makes its imports cheaper and export more
expensive
(ii) An appreciation of a country’s currency makes its exports more expensive and imports
cheaper
(iii) It is determined in the foreign exchange market
Answer
A. Only (i)
49
From the following statements about correlation, choose the statement which is not correct
Answer
Question Cancelled
50
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Industrial Policy of 1991?
(i) It provides approval for up to 51% foreign equity in high priority industries
(ii) It promotes license-permit raj
(iii) It proposed to remove the limits of assets fixed for MRTP companies and dominant
undertakings
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iii)
A 15 087/2023
51
Which of the following statement is/are not come under the recommendations of 15th Finance
Commission?
(i) Aggregate share of net proceeds of union taxes to be devolved to states is 42%
(ii) The weight given to area of states is 15%
(iii) The weight given to income of states is 45%
Answer
Question Cancelled
52
Which of the following demographic features of Kerala is/are correct?
(i) Among the districts of the state Malappuram has the highest growth of population
(ii) The most densely populated district is Thiruvananthapuram
(iii) The least densely populated district is Idukki
Answer
C. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
53
Which of the following statement is/are correct about India’s energy sector?
(i) The largest domestic source of energy supply and electricity generation is coal
(ii) India’s power system is shifting to higher shares of renewable energy
(iii) India is the third largest consumer of oil
Answer
C. All of the above (i) (ii) and (iii)
54
A farming practice which uses diversification at the farm and landscape level using
integrated production types
Answer
B. Agroecology
55
Which of the following statement is a centrally sponsored scheme of Government of India
launched as recommended by National Health Policy, 2017?
Answer
A. Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
56
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Minimum Support policy?
(i) In ensures farmers against sharp fall in farm prices
(ii) It improves economic access to food for people
(iii) It is announced by State governments
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
57
Which of the following features of Agricultural sector of Kerala is/are correct?
(i) Coconut occupied the major area followed by rice
(ii) Agricultural sector is the primary source of livelihood for a majority of population
(iii) Growth rate of Agriculture is greater than all India average
Answer
A. Only (ii) and (iii)
58
Self-Reliant India (SRI) is a scheme relating to
Answer
D. Credit support scheme of MSMEs
A 17 087/2023
59
Which of the following is/are the schemes of Government of India to facilitate and encourage
exports?
(i) Interest Equalization Scheme
(ii) Export Credit Guarantee
(iii) Krishi Udan Scheme
Answer
C. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
60
Which of the following statement is/are correct about World Trade Organization?
(i) India has been a WTO member since 1 January 1995
(ii) TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) agreement is
administered by WTO
(iii) Bajendra Navnit is India’s permanent representative to WTO
Answer
C. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
61
Two matrices A and B are multiplied to get AB if
Answer
Question Cancelled
62
Which of the following statement about Linear Programming Problem is/are correct?
(i) In a LPP the limitation under which the objective function is to be optimized are called
constraints
(ii) The linear relation of the variables which are either to be maximized or minimized is
called the objective function
(iii) The variables used in the objective function are called decision variables
Answer
C. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
63
Which of the following statement about ANOVA is/are correct?
(i) ANOVA is a statistical method of comparing means of several populations
(ii) One-way ANOVA is used to determine the significant difference between means of
three or more independent groups
(iii) Two-way ANOVA examines the influence of two different categorical variables
Answer
C. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
64
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Crypto currencies in India?
(i) Crypto assets are new forms of digital assets implemented using cryptographic
techniques
(ii) Monitoring and regulating crypto currencies have been tricky
(iii) There is no crypto exchange in India
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
65
Which of the following statement is/are correct about GST in India?
(i) Liability to pay tax arises only when the taxable person crosses the exemption
threshold
(ii) 51% equity of GSTN is undertaken by government owned financial institutions
(iii) The chairman of GST council is Union Finance Minister
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iii)
A 19 087/2023
66
Which of the following statement about Foreign Institutional Investors is/are correct?
(i) FIIs are allowed to invest in primary and secondary capital markets in India
(ii) The ceiling on investment for FIIs is 24% of the paid-up capital of the Indian company
(iii) FIIs invest through portfolio investment scheme
Answer
C. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
67
Choose the correct answer about Standard Error
Answer
B. It is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution
68
Which of the following statement about Chi-square Test is/are correct?
(i) It is a non–parametric test
(ii) The sample observations should not be Independent
(iii) It is applicable for large values of n
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iii)
69
In probability theory, two events are said to be mutually exclusive
Answer
B. If they cannot occur at the same time or simultaneously
70
Which of the following statement about normal distribution is not correct?
Answer
A. It is applied for discrete and random variables
71
The main purpose of student Centric teaching is
Answer
A. To develop the learner’s skills and abilities independently
72
Choose the correct statement/statements
(i) Formative evaluation is done with the purpose of monitor student’s learning in regular
basis
(ii) Summative evaluation helps to identify and overcome learning deficiencies in
knowledge, skills and abilities of the learner
(iii) Terminal examinations are examples of summative evaluation
(iv) Cumulative assessments done for the purpose of selection and promotion are examples
of formative evaluation
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
73
Audio visual aids helps to achieve desired learning objectives, the main barriers of using
them effectively in the classroom are
Answer
D. All of the above
A 21 087/2023
74
Identify the factors affecting teaching in a democratic classroom
(i) Subject competency of the teacher in presenting the content
(ii) Immediate feedback and reinforcement
(iii) Provision for Open discussions and opportunities for expressing views independently by
the learner
(iv) Creatively engage students in activities that are of the students’ choice
Answer
B. Only (iii) and (iv)
75
Which statement is correct with regard to the emotional characteristics of the learner?
Answer
B. Learner respect individual differences that are reflected in peer group members
76
Philosophical principles of researches in science include
(i) Findings of the research to be generalized
(ii) Findings of the research to be replicable
(iii) Research findings contribute to knowledge level
(iv) All of these
Answer
C. Only (iv)
77
Identify the statement which negatively affect while interpreting research data
(i) Use appropriate and trust worthy data
(ii) Ensure Validity of the data
(iii) Interaction between theoretical orientation and empirical observation
(iv) Always include elements of Subjectivity
Answer
D. Only (iv)
78
In order to conduct research on ‘enhancing motivation of undergraduate students’, the
investigator can adopt
Answer
C. Action research
79
An academic meeting in which the participants are also expected to participate and engaging
in discussion about the relevant topics is called
Answer
D. Seminar
80
An investigator can analyse data to find out the strength and direction of the association
between two or more variables using
Answer
D. Correlation
A 23 087/2023
81
In India, both houses of Parliament collectively enjoy privileges such as
(i) Right of publication and prohibition of publication of proceedings.
(ii) Right to exclude strangers to ensure privacy
(iii) Right to punish for contempt
(iv) Right to regulate internal proceedings
Answer
D. All the Above
82
The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000) recommended
the inclusion of the following fundamental rights:
(i) Freedom of the Press and freedom of Information
(ii) Right against torture and cruel, in human or degrading treatment or punishment
(iii) Right to work
(iv) Right to privacy
Answer
A. All the Above
83
Identify the non-federal features of Indian Constitution from the following.
(i) Dual Polity, Integrated Judiciary, Rigidity, Separation of powers
(ii) Written Constitution, Independent Judiciary, Division of Powers, Bicameralism
(iii) Single Citizenship, Integrated Judiciary, A Strong Central Government, Single
Constitution for Union and States
(iv) Supremacy of the Constitution, Single Citizenship, Division of Powers, independent
Judiciary.
Answer
C. (iii) only
84
Article 12 of the Constitution of India define state as
(i) Government and Parliament of India
(ii) Government and Legislature of states
(iii) Elected representatives, Judges, Judicial officers, Bureaucrats
(iv) Public Corporations Autonomous Bodies, Government Universities
Answer
D. All the above
85
86th Constitutional Amendment (2002) changed the content and scope of
Answer
B. Article 45
86
The Public Information Officer can deny information:
(i) Disclosure of which prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of the country
(ii) The disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of parliament or state
legislature
(iii) Received in confidence from foreign governments
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
87
The Nodal agency and Authority established to protect, conserve and rejuvenate the Ganga
River Basin under Environment Protection Act (1986).
Answer
B. National Mission for Clean Ganga
88
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with regard to the Open Market Sales
Scheme
Answer
D. omestic) of Food Corporation of India?
(i) Retail sale of excess stocks of food grains in open market at reserved price
(ii) Special supply of food grains to charitable and non-governmental organisations
(iii) Supply of food grains for running community kitchens
89
A child enrolled in health insurance under Ayushman Bharat Scheme get a coverage
of Rs.
Answer
C. 5 Lakhs
90
The Syama Prasad Mukherji Urban Mission (SPMRM) of Ministry of Rural Development
aims at
(i) Development of cluster of villages that preserve and nurture community life with
equity and inclusiveness
(ii) Bridging the rural-urban divide
(iii) Stimulating local economic development
(iv) Attracting investments in rural areas
Answer
D. All the Above
087/2023 26 A
91
Considering the table:
List 1 List 2
Answer
A. Benjamin Bailey (1) Salvation Army
92
Select the statement(s) suited for Yogakshema Sabha
(i) The Yogakshema Sabha was started among the Namboothiris in 1908
(ii) The Sabha tried to abolish purdha system among the Namboothiri females
(iii) The slogan of the Yogakshema Sabha was “Make Namboothiri a human being”
(iv) In 1944, the annual meeting of the sabha held at Edakkunni a resolution for widow
marriage was introduced
Answer
B. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
93
Which of the following statement regarding Swadeshabhimani Ramakrishna Pillai is/are
correct?
(i) Ramakrishna Pillai adopted journalism as his profession on 14th September, 1899,
assuming charge as Editor of the Kerala Darpanam.
(ii) On 22nd April, 1901, he became the Editor of Kerala Panchika and in August 1903, of
the Malayali
(iii) In 1904, he started a new publication named Swadheshabhimani to criticise the
Government’s policy
(iv) On 26th September 1910, by a Royal Proclamation, the Swadheshabhimani
Ramakrishna Pillai was suppressed, its Editor banished from the state and the press
confiscated to the Government
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
94
What is correct chronological order of the following events?
(i) Vaikom Satyagraha
(ii) Malayali Memorial
(iii) Channar Agitation
(iv) Temple Entry Proclamation
Answer
B. (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
95
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Library movement in kerala?
(i) The library movement in Kerala began in the early part of the 19th century.
(ii) The library movement in Travancore came to be organised as a popular and democratic
movement.
(iii) The Ernakulam public library was formally opened by the then Diwan T. Sankunny
Menon.
(iv) The Kerala Library Council set up under the provisions of Kerala Public Libraries Act,
1969 exercises control over the affairs.
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
96
Which of the following novels are not written by C.V. Raman Pillai?
(i) The Marthandavarma
(ii) Keralaputran
(iii) Ramaraja bahadur
(iv) Premamrutham
Answer
A. (ii) only
97
The following table shows some books and authors. Which of the following is the correct
arrangement of book to the author
Book Author
Answer
A. Kazhinja Kalam (1) C. Kesavan
98
Which of the following statement is/are incorrect about Vaikunda Swami?
(i) His original name was Mudichudan perumal
(ii) Rev. Fr. Mead taught him the fundamentals of the Bible
(iii) He tried to materialise his dream of social equality through the socialisation of the
concept of Samatva Samajam.
(iv) He was also known as Sadananda swami
Answer
D. Only (iv) is incorrect
A 29 087/2023
99
Consider the following statements regarding Arya Pallam
(i) Vathilpurappadu is the book written by Arya Pallam
(ii) Arya inaugurated the annual meeting of yuvajana movement at Thalipparambu in
1932.
(iii) A Namboothiri women’s organisation was formed with the name Antharjana Samajam
under the leadership of Arya pallam.
(iv) Arya Pallam actively participated in the Paliyam satyagraha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
B. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
100
Considering the following table:
Answer
B. A.R. RajaRaja Varma
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