| Post Name | NON VOCATIONAL TEACHER PHYSICS (Junior & Senior) - KERALA VHSE |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 084/2023 |
| Category Code | 576/2022, 577/2022, 587/2022 |
| Date of Test | 22 June 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
If δ (x ) represents Dirac delta function, which of the following is wrong ?
Answer
A. δ ( x −
2
The value of Hermite polynomial H 3
Answer
B. 0
3
What is the value of the integral ∫₀²π dφ ∫₀π sin θ dθ Y₁⁰(θ, φ)(Y₁⁰(θ, φ))*? The spherical harmonic Y_l⁰(θ, φ) = √((2l + 1)/(4π)) P_l⁰(cos θ), where P_l⁰(cos θ) is the associated Legendre polynomial and (Y_l⁰)* represents its complex conjugate:
Answer
B. 1
4
Which statement about Bessel and Neumann functions is true?
Answer
C. General solution is AJ_n(r)+BN_n(r), except at r=0
5
Consider the integral ∮_C z²/(z² − 6z − 8) dz, where C is a circle defined by |z| = 3. The value of the integral is:
Answer
Question Cancelled
6
Answer
C. (–) 3
7
For f(x)=x² on (−π,π), find 1/1 − 1/4 + 1/9 − 1/16 + ⋯.
Answer
C. π²/12
8
Constraints on a simple pendulum with rigid support is :
Answer
D. Holonomic and Scleronomous
9
An electron is moving with a velocity v in an electromagnetic field of vector potential A and
scalar potential Φ . The Lagrangian of the electron is :
1 1
Answer
A. mv2 + e Φ − e( A. v )
10
A particle is moving in an elliptical orbit under the influence a central potential V (r ) =
.
r
The maximum and minimum distance of the particle from centre of force are r1 and r2 . If the
eccentricity of the elliptical path is 0.5, then what is the ratio of maximum velocity and
minimum velocity of the particle?
Answer
B. 3
11
A horizontal circular platform is rotating anticlockwise about an axis passing through the
center with a constant angular velocity Ω . A person seated at the centre shoots a bullet of
mass m horizontally with a speed 10m/s. The acceleration of bullet in the reference frame of
the observer will be :
Answer
Question Cancelled
12
Which of the following transformation matrix corresponds to rotation by an angle Φ , any one
of the Euler angles?
− cos Φ sin Φ 0 cos Φ − sin Φ 0
sin Φ cos Φ 0
Answer
C. 0 cos Φ sin Φ
13
The logistic map is X_{n+1}=AX_n(1−X_n), with 0≤X≤1 and 0≤A≤4. For A=1.25 its equilibrium points are:
Answer
D. 0, an unstable stable equilibrium point and 0.2 a stable equilibrium point
14
If S represents Hamilton’s characteristic function, the Hamilton–Jacobi equation for a free particle of mass m is:
Answer
B. (1/2m)(∂S/∂q)² + (∂S/∂t) = 0
15
Which of the following is not a Hermitian operator?
Answer
D. ℏ d/dx
16
If σ x , σ y and σ z are Pauli’s spin matrices, σ x σ y + 2σ yσ x is equal to :
Answer
A. (− ) i σ z
17
Consider an elastic scattering of particles in l = 1 states (p states). If the corresponding phase shift δ₁ = 45° and magnitude of incident wave vector is equal to √(3π) fm⁻¹, then the total scattering cross section in units of fm² is:
Answer
C. 2
18
If A and B represents Einstein’s coefficient for spontaneous emission and stimulated
emission respectively for a particular frequency f . R represents the ratio between A and B. If
frequency is doubled, what will be the new ratio?
Answer
B. 8R
19
A one-dimensional simple harmonic oscillator with Hamiltonian H 0 = + kx is subjected
2m 2
to a small perturbation, H ' = αx + βx 3 + γx 4 . The first order correction to ground state energy
is give by :
2 2
3γ α + β
Answer
A.
20
Which of the following statement is true about Klein-Gordan equation?
Answer
D. It can represent spin-0 particles like Pions
21
Ĵ represents angular momentum operator and |j,m⟩ represents simultaneous eigenstates of operators Ĵ² and Ĵ_z. What is the matrix representation of Ĵ² in |j,m⟩ basis for j = 2?
Answer
A. 6ℏ² [[1, 0, 0], [0, 1, 0], [0, 0, 1]]
22
For a system, ρ is the density distribution function, q_i and p_i are coordinates and momenta respectively, and f represents the number of degrees of freedom. Which of the following does not represent Liouville’s equation?
Answer
A. ∂ρ/∂t = 0
23
If ρ̂ represents density matrix and H represents Hamiltonian of the system, which of the
following statement is incorrect regarding density matrix?
Answer
C. Density matrix is always diagonal in any representation
24
If the number density of a non-relativistic free electron gas in three dimension is increased
8 times, ground state pressure of the system will:
Answer
A. Increase by a factor of 32
25
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding Bose Einstein condensation?
Answer
B. Below characteristic temperature TC , all particles reside in the ground state
26
A classical one-dimensional system of non-interacting particles is under the influence of a
potential V (x ) = αx 4 , where α is a constant. What is the average potential energy of a
particle?
Answer
D. kBT
2 4
A 7 084/2023
27
Consider a one-dimensional harmonic oscillator of mass m and frequency v . It’s
p2
Hamiltonian is given by H = + kx 2 . What will be number of cells in the two-dimensional
2m
phase space within the energy range between 0 and E?
Answer
C. hv
28
Which of the following is true about Pauli’s Paramagnetism as temperature T tends to zero
Kelvin?
Answer
C. Paramagnetic susceptibility ( χ 0 ) is proportional to density of Fermi gas
29
A JFET has I_DSS=10 mA and I_D=4.9 mA at V_GS=−1.8 V. The minimum drain-source voltage at which drain current becomes constant is:
Answer
B. 6 V
30
The input resistance and feedback resistance of an inverting operational amplifier is 1 kΩ
and 1 0 kΩ respectively. The open loop gain is (− 114 dB ) . If unity-gain bandwidth is 2 MHz,
then closed loop bandwidth is:
Answer
A. 200 kHz
31
An inverting operational amplifier differentiates a 10 kHz signal. Suitable C and R_F are:
Answer
A. C=0.047 μF, R_F=1 kΩ
32
A first order low-pass Butterworth filter has a passband gain of 2. If the gain at 1kHz is 1.41,
what will be the gain at 10 kHz?
Answer
D. 0.2
084/2023 8 A
33
Calculate the modulation depth, when a transmitter radiates a signal of 10.125 kW after
modulation and 9kW without modulation of the signal :
Answer
C. 50%
34
If the number of quantisation levels in a PCM (Pulse Code Modulation) system is increased
from 8 to 64, the bandwidth of the channel changes by :
Answer
C. a factor of 2
35
Which of the following statement is incorrect about satellite communications?
Answer
D. None of these
36
Which of the following is Register Indirect Addressing?
Answer
C. MOV A, M
37
A microprocessor acts as a central processing unit for a microcomputer. Which of the
following can be part/parts of such a microprocessor?
Answer
A. Registers
38
8085 microprocessor has 5 MHz frequency. An instruction cycle consists of an Opcode Fetch
and Memory Read which requires 4T states and 3T states to execute. The time required to
execute the instruction cycle is :
Answer
C. 1.4 μ s
39
The frequency of the crystal oscillator in the 8051 microcontroller is 12 MHz. The time
required for one machine cycle is :
1
Answer
C. 1μs
40
Which of the following combination of registers are used as register pairs for 16-bit
operations in 8085?
Answer
D. H-L
41
An 8-bit Analog to Digital converter operates over a range of 0–10.24 V. The binary
representation of 2.56V signal is:
Answer
D. 01000000
42
Which of the following statement is true about sample and Hold circuit?
Answer
B. It stabilizes the input analog signal during conversion process
43
Which of the following statements are correct for Beta plus decay?
(i) Can happen if the daughter nucleus is more stable than the mother nucleus
(ii) Can take place only if the rest mass of the parent nuclide is at least two electron
masses
(iii) A neutron is converted to a proton
(iv) Conserves Lepton number
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
44
The binding energy per nucleon :
Answer
D. has a maximum near iron in the periodic table
45
The conditions under which Fick’s law was derived are:
(i) Flux contributions are negligible beyond a few mean free paths
(ii) Contribution to the flux is mostly from in-elastic scattering reactions
(iii) Neutron flux is slowly varying
(iv) Neutron flux is dependent of time
Answer
D. (i) and (iii) are correct
084/2023 10 A
46
The unknown particle ‘x’ in the nuclear reaction: k − + p → k + + x
Answer
B. Hyperons
47
The stable nuclei for a mass number 27 will have an atomic number corresponding to::
Answer
B. Aluminium
48
Which statement is incorrect about quarks?
Answer
B. π − consists of 3 quarks
49
Filters used in XRD may eliminate
Answer
C. K β
50
The attenuation mechanism due to optical fibers is because of:
Answer
B. absorption and scattering and depends on cladding and core material
51
In semiconductor laser, the emission of radiation is :
Answer
A. Is perpendicular to the direction of the exciting electron
52
The holographic setup should be arranged so that the vibrations due to mechanical, acoustic
or thermal effects should not produce a path variations more than :
Answer
D. λ / 8
53
The relative index change of a fibre is 0.0032 and the core refractive index is 2. Then its
numerical aperture is :
Answer
C. 0.16
54
A fibre cable has an acceptance angle of 30° and a core index of refraction 1.6. The refractive
index of cladding is:
Answer
A. 1.52
55
A relative population of 2/e is the ratio of populations of two energy states at 300 K. The emitted wavelength is:
Answer
B. 2.4×10⁻⁶ m
56
The pulsing technique that is capable of producing the shortest pulse is:
Answer
B. Mode-locking
57
The vibrational frequency of non-rigid rotator of hydrogen chloride whose centrifugal
distortion constant and rotational constant are given as 10.44 cm–1 and 5.28 × 10–4 Cm–1 will
be:
Answer
Question Cancelled
58
A Mossbauer nucleus 57Fe makes the transition from the excited state of energy of
23 × 10–16 J to the ground state. The recoil velocity is then:
Answer
C. 3.05 × 10–16 J
59
The larmour frequency of a F-19 with gyromagnetic ratio 40.05 MHz/T in a magnetic field
strength of 3 T is about:
Answer
D. 120 MHz
60
The normal modes of vibrations of CO2 molecules::
Answer
C. Symmetric stretching is IR inactive but Symmetric bending are IR active
61
The rotational Raman spectra of symmetric top molecule, the frequencies of R-branch lines
appear as:
Answer
B. equally spaced lines with spacing equal to 2B
62
The transition frequency between two spin states of a free electron at 0.2 T with g=2.0025 and magnetic moment 9.3×10⁻²⁴ J is:
Answer
A. 5.6×10⁹ s⁻¹
63
Concerning nuclear spin and NMR, which statement is false?
Answer
A. Nuclei with I=0 readily undergo NMR
64
The interplanar spacing between (221) planes of copper with lattice constant 3.62A° is :
Answer
B. 1.2 A0
65
The magnetic induction of an iron rod which is subjected to a magnetic field of 2000 Am–1
whose susceptibility is 599 will be :
Answer
D. 1.51 T
66
Which is the correct statement with regard to the Einstein-Debye phonon model?
Answer
D. Total specific heat depend on electronic specific heat proportional to temperature
and Vibrational specific heat proportional to cube of temperature
67
The polarization of an electric field of 108 Vm–1 with a medium having dielectric constant of 2
is :
Answer
A. 8.85 × 10–4 coulomb m–2
68
The critical field of a superconductor at 2K having critical temperature of 8K at zero
magnetic field and critical field of 0.04 T at 0 K is:
Answer
B. .0375 T
69
The incorrect statement regarding first Brillouin zone is :
Answer
C. is the region of reciprocal space in which a point has one Bragg Plane between it
and the origin
70
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is the :
Answer
D. Neel Temperature
A 13 084/2023
71
The main objective/s of learning is/are :
(i) To gather information about student weaknesses.
(ii) Modification of behaviour.
(iii) To adopt innovative methods of teaching.
(iv) To identify the areas of further improvement in teaching learning process.
Answer
D. (ii) only
72
The evaluation to assess the overall effectiveness of a program and grade the pupil is :
Answer
C. Summative evaluation
73
Backward exploration is a shortcut that makes the process of problem solving quick and
efficient. What does backward exploration mean?
Answer
A. It is a process in which we analyse the previous solutions of a problem, apply
them to the problem and check which is relevant one.
74
What is the sequence of steps of lesson planning?
(i) Followup activity
(ii) Developmental activity
(iii) Setting of specific objectives
(iv) Introductory activity
(v) Recapitulation
Answer
C. (iii), (iv), (ii), (v), (i)
75
At which of the following stages of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development is a child
confronted with confusing ideas?
Answer
D. Preoperational stage
76
Match the statement given in the List A with the List
Answer
C. (3) (1) (2)
77
Which one of the following refers to the authenticity or genuineness of the document?
Answer
D. Internal Criticism
78
Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in historical research?
(i) Identify primary and secondary data sources.
(ii) Analyze the data and develop a narrative exposition of the findings.
(iii) Evaluate the authenticity and accuracy of source materials.
(iv) Collection of data
Answer
A. (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
79
Which of the following options most appropriately explains ‘Research Ethics’?
Answer
D. It provides a common set of do’s and don’ts of conducting ethical research
80
An academic lecture or presentation to an audience on certain topics of educational nature, it
is called :
Answer
C. Seminar
81
The Constitution of India exhibits federal characteristics, eventhough it does not explicitly
define India as a federal state. Which of the following statements are TRUE about the federal
characteristics of the Indian Constitution?
(i) The Constitution provides for an independent and impartial judiciary.
(ii) The Constitution establishes institutional checks and balances to limit the power of
both states and the centre.
(iii) The central government possesses more powers than state governments, making the
constitution more unitary in nature.
Answer
D. All the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
82
The Indian Constitution includes a comprehensive chapter on fundamental rights. Which of
the following statements regarding fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution is/are
TRUE?
(i) The right to life and liberty prohibits discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex,
or birthplace.
(ii) Individuals can approach the judiciary in India to enforce their fundamental rights
under the right to constitutional remedy.
(iii) Cultural and educational rights protect the interests of minorities by preserving their
language, script and culture.
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
83
Which of the following is NOT true about the Indian judiciary?
Answer
D. The doctrine of “due process of law” gives the judiciary more power than the
legislature.
84
Find the appropriate match between the colunms of constitutional Amendments in India and
the Goals of Amendment in the following table. Then, select the correct answer group :
Constitutional Amendments Goals of Amendment
(i) 102nd Amendment (1) The Bill aims to give State governments the power to
identify socially and educationally backward OBCs
(ii) 103rd Amendment (2) To extend the reservation of seats for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
and State Assemblies until 2030
(iii) 104th Amendment (3) To reserve seats for economically weaker sections of
society in government educational institutions
and public employment.
(iv) 105th Amendment (4) Create a National Commission for Backward
Classes and grant the President the authority
to identify socially and educationally disadvantaged groups.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer
D. (4) (3) (2) (1)
85
Though instituted much later, the fundamental duties are an inevitable part of the Indian
Constitution. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE about the fundamental duties
enshrined in the Constitution?
(i) They are a set of moral and ethical obligations that every citizen of India is expected to
fulfil.
(ii) These are not legally enforceable but promote responsibility and patriotism among
citizens.
(iii) They cover a specific range of areas and are limited to duties related to the
Constitution, the national flag and anthem.
(iv) They are complementary to the fundamental rights enshrined in the Indian
Constitution.
Answer
C. Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
86
Which of the following is NOT one of the effects of the emergency provisions mentioned in the
Indian Constitution?
Answer
B. The life of the Rajya Sabha can be extended by one year at a time.
87
The Constitution of India contains an exclusive provision for amendment. Which of the
following statements is TRUE about the amendment procedure in the Constitution of India?
(i) Amendments related to the admission or establishment of new states can be made by a
simple majority of the two houses of Parliament.
(ii) The amendment procedure balances the need for flexibility with the need for stability
and continuity.
(iii) The parliament has initiated the “basic structure” doctrine of the Constitution, which
cannot be amended.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
88
Which of the following statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer
C. The DPSPs are enforceable by any court in India.
89
Which among the following are the functions of the NHRC?
(i) To enquire complaints of violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of
violation by a public servant
(ii) To study human rights treaties and international instruments, and recommend their
effective implementation to the government.
(iii) To spread human rights awareness and encourages efforts in human rights literacy at
national and international levels.
(iv) To hear complaints related to service matters and matters that are sub-judice.
Answer
A. Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
90
Which among the following are the functions of the Union Public Service Commission?
(i) Conducting interviews and assessments for various military positions
(ii) Conducting competitive examinations for various civil services positions.
(iii) Selecting candidates for various civil services positions based on merit and
performance.
(iv) Advising the government on matters related to personnel management and
recruitment.
Answer
B. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
91
Which statement is/are incorrect regarding the Ramon MagSaySay Award?
(i) It is known as the “Nobel Prize of Asia”.
(ii) Dalailama is the first recipient of this Award as spiritual leader.
(iii) Blessed Mother Teresa is a recipient of this Award in 1986.
(iv) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan is not a recipient of this Award.
Answer
D. (iii) and (iv) only
92
ICC Men’s T20 world cup held in November 2022. Which statement is/are correct regarding
the final match?
(i) It was played at Melbourne Cricket Ground on 13th November 2022.
(ii) England won the match by 5 wickets.
(iii) Kumar Dharmasena was an on-field umpire in the match.
(iv) Joe Root of England was the ‘Player of the Match’.
Answer
B. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
93
Write the chronological order of the formation of the following socio-religious reform
movements of Kerala :
(i) Islam Dharma Paripalana Sangham.
(ii) Vaala Samudaya Parishkarani Sabha.
(iii) Samathwa Samajam
(iv) Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangham.
Answer
C. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
94
Which statement is/are incorrect regarding the Paliyam Sathyagraha?
(i) It was officially inaugurated by Panampilly Govinda Menon.
(ii) It was the first post independent Satyagraha organized in Kerala.
(iii) It was supported by women from all parts of Kerala.
(iv) A.G. Velayudham was killed in police lathi charge.
Answer
A. (i) only
95
The Abstention Movement was a historic event in Travancore history. From the following
statements, find out the wrong statement/statements :
(i) It was a joint venture of the Ezhava, Muslim and Christian Communities.
(ii) C. Kesavan, delivered the famous ‘Kozhencherry Speech’ on May 11, 1934.
(iii) Franchise was widened by reducing the property qualification.
(iv) It brought the issue of responsible government in Travancore.
Answer
B. (ii) only
96
Match the following :
(i) Rajyasamacharam (1) Moorkoth Kumaran
(ii) Vivekodayam (2) Swami Guruprasad
(iii) Gajakesari (3) Basel Mission Society
(iv) Mithavadi (4) Ezhava Gazette
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer
D. (3) (4) (2) (1)
97
Find out the incorrect statement/statements from the following :
(i) Bhaskara Menon is regarded as the first detective novel in Malayalam.
(ii) Kerala Sangeetha Nataka Academy was inaugurated by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the
then Prime Minister of India, on 26 April 1958.
(iii) M.K. Sanu was the President of Purogamana Kala Sahithya Sangham during 1988-90.
(iv) Lilathilakam is a 16th Century treatise on Malayalam grammar and poetics.
Answer
D. (iv) only
A 21 084/2023
98
Match the following :
(i) Parvathy Nenmenimangalam (1) Agnipushpangal
(ii) Lalithambika Antharjanam (2) KPCC President in 1944
(iii) A.V. Kuttimalu Amma (3) Founder and editor of the journal “Shreemati”
(iv) Justice Anna Chandy (4) Antharjana Samajam
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer
A. (4) (1) (2) (3)
99
Find out the wrong pair from the following table :
(i) Dr. Ayyathan Gopalan – Rao Sahib
(ii) K.P. Vallon – ‘Adhakrithan’ magazine
(iii) P.K. Chathan Master – Member of Legislative Assembly from
Chelakkara
(iv) T.K. Krishnaswami Iyer – Called ‘Untouchable Brahmin’
Answer
C. (iii) only
100
Match the following :
(i) P.Kesavadev (1) Ente Vazhiyambalangal
(ii) Ponkunnam Varkey (2) Ethirppu
(iii) S.K. Pottekkatt (3) Kazhinjakalam
(iv) K.P. Kesava Menon (4) Ente Vazhithirivu
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer
B. (2) (4) (1) (3)
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